Transcript Project name

Pharmacology and
Pathophysiology II
Comprehensive Final Examination
Your patient is ordered Coumadin 7.5 mg PO Daily. Which of the
following orders would you least likely question for mild pain?
ASA 325 mg PO
Tylenol 650 mg PO
Ibuprofen 600 mg PO
Celebrex 100 mg PO
Which of the following statements by a patient would indicate further teaching is
necessary by the nurse regarding the new script for Percocet 5-325mg
I can still drink 1 glass of red wine with dinner
I will not drive when taking this medication
Since I have never had a medication like this before, I
need to take extra precaution as I am opioid naïve.
I need to speak with my NP before taking my herbal
supplement
Which of the following requires immediate attention by the
nurse following the administration of MSO4 IV to a patient?
Pulse ox 92%
HR 59
Pain scale 8/10
RR 7
This medication is administered for SVT.
Epinephrine
Adenosine
Atropine
Amiodarone
This medication is the generic name for Plavix.
celecoxib
clopidigrel
carvidilol
ceftibuten
A patient has the following signs: diaphoresis, flushing,
dyspnea, dizziness, nausea and confusion. Vitals are:
90/50, 48, 16, 94%. Which of the following medications
do you anticipate being ordered?
Narcan
Epinephrine
Glucagon
Atropine
A 12 year old girl comes to your urgent care center with wheezing, SOB
difficulty breathing. The mother states she has a history of asthma attacks
such as this. You anticipate which of the following medications to be ordered
immediately?
Albuterol and Atrovent neb
Prednisone 40 mg PO
SoluMedrol 125 mg IV
Advair 100 / 50
You instruct your patient on the overuse of the OTC
nasal spray Afrin and include which of the following
You can become addicted to Afrin if you abuse it
Because it is an OTC spray, there are no adverse
effects
Afrin is the OTC version of Flonase
Overuse will result in rebound nasal congestion
Order: Lasix 20 mg IV
Available: furosemide 100 mg / 5mL
How many mL will you administer?
Order: Rocephin 500 mg IM
Available: Rocephin 1gm / 2mL
How many mg will you give?
Which of the following is the equivalent to ampicillin and
sulbactam?
Unasyn
Augmentin
Zosyn
Timentin
Which of the following classifications acts on the 30S
Chromosomal Subunit?
Penicillin
Tetracycline
Polymixins
Macrolides
Cipro falls into which classification?
Macrolides
Carbapenem
Beta Lactam
Fluoroquinolone
A nurse would be concerned with which medication ordered by a physician preoperatively for a patient undergoing general anesthesia?
Doxycycline
Penicillin
Cipro
TMP - SMZ
A patient has been prescribed PenVK (penicillin with potassium) for a dental
abscess. Which of the following is an appropriate statement made by the nurse?
PCN acts on 50S Subunit
Notify your physician if you have Myastenthia
Gravis, as PCN is contraindicated
You will need to take additional precautions if you
are on birthcontrol
This medication also works for curing peptic ulcers
This medication acts on Protein Synthesis
Bactrim
Cipro
Penicillin
Clindamycin
Order: 5L NSS to be infused over 2.5 hours
Drip Rate: 15 gtt / mL
Calculate the drips per minute
Order: 3L NSS to be infused over 1 hour
Drip Rate: 20 gtt / mL
Calculate the drips per minute
Your patient is prescribed omeprazole 20 mg PO. You
anticipate which in their medical history?
Lower Back Pain
GERD
HTN
Hyperlipidemia
A patient presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with rales, wheezing, and
blood-tinged sputum. The nurse suspects the patient is in congestive heart
failure (CHF). What would the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
Cardiomegaly
Cardiomyopathy
Pulmonary Edema
Valvular Heart Disease
Which of the following is an ACE Inhibitor?
Lisinopril
Atenolol
Digoxin
Cardizem
Which of the following is a medication for
hyperlipidemia?
Fenofibrate
Albuterol
Norvasc
Ramipril
Which order would you question for a patient with HTN, DM, Liver Failure,
CHF, COPD, Asthma?
Oxycodone 5 mg PO Q 8 hours
Simvastatin 10 mg PO Daily
Percocet 5/325mg PO Q6 hours
Lopressor 25 mg PO Daily
What classification is simvastatin?
Aldosterone Receptor Antagonist
Beta – Adrenergic Blocking Agent
Calcium Channel Blocker
HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitor
Which of the following medications reduce cardiac
ischemia in fibrinolytic therapy patients and reduces
the occurrence of VF S/P MI?
Enalapril
Metoprolol
Verapamil
Lidocaine
This medication is used as an anticoagulant substitute when ASA
cannot be tolerated and S/P Cardiac Catheterization
Enoxaprin
Heparin
Clopidogrel
Warfarin
A patient is brought by EMS to the ED with swelling of the face,
difficulty breathing, hives and uticaria. Vitals are: 95/55, 125, 26
and 90%. You identify this as:
Angioedema
Allergic Reaction
Adverse Reaction
Anaphylactic Shock
Which of the following is a cephalosporin?
Ceftriaxone
Ampicillin
Zosyn
Tetracycline
A client is receiving ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection. This drug is
administered IV. During an infusion, the nurse notes fluid leaking into the
tissue around the IV site. What is the best response of the nurse?
D/C the IV
Decrease the IV drip rate
Administer pain medication
Elevate the extremity
A parent brings a child to the clinic for an earache. The child receives a
prescription for amoxicillin. The parent calls the clinic the next day and
says the child has been taking the medicine and now has a rash. The
nurse should give the parent instructions about which type of response?
Expected Response
Allergic Response
Idiosyncratic Response
Anaphylactic Response
Which of the following is tetracycline?
Gentamycin
Rifampin
Biaxin
Doxycycline
Unlike penicillin, most cephalosporins can be taken with food to prevent gastric upset.
Which of the following is the only cephalosporin that the nurse would advise NOT to
take with food?
cefazolin
cephalexin
ceftibuten
cefprozil
The nurse is preparing to apply testosterone gel (Androgel) to a male
client who has a low testosterone level. What is the nurse's top
priority action before administering this medication?
Shave the patient’s chest
Moisten the skin with water
Put on gloves
Apply to the patient’s scrotum
Which medication is used to treat tuberculosis.
INH
HCTZ
SMZ-TMP DS
PCN
When kanamycin (Kantrex) is administered to a client to treat hepatic coma
which of the following is not part of the nurse's ongoing assessment?
Changes in mentation
Changes in level of consciousness
Changes in ability to swallow
Changes in sputum production
If a client taking metoprolol (Lopressor) 50 mg one tablet
twice daily begins taking pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) over the
counter, which of the following might occur?
Hyperglycemic Episode
Hypertensive Episode
Rebound Congestion
Tachycardia Episode
A nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection.
Which gauge needle is the nurse most likely to select?
#22
#25
#20
#18
A client should be instructed to take sublingual NTG how often
if he experiences chest pain?
Q1 minute x3
Q3 minutes x5
Q5 minutes x3
Q10 minutes x 3
A client is given a prescription for fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair) 250/50 to inhale one
puff twice a day, before leaving the hospital after an acute asthma attack. The nurse
completing the client's discharge counseling should tell the client which of the
following?
Take the medication as needed
Advair replaces the need for a rescue inhaler
Rinse your mouth out after each use
Shake the meter well before using
This classification of medications are chemically
related to penicillins.
Carbapenems
Quinolones
Fourth Generation Cephalosporins (N and C)
Aminoglycosides
Daptomycin (Cubicin) can be used to treat which of the following?
Gram-positive bacteria
Gram-negative bacteria
Both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
Neither gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria
Your patient has stage 3 renal failure and CHF. Which
medication do you anticipate the physician to prescribe?
Lasix
Aldactone
HCTZ
Amiloride
You will question which medication for a patient
in renal failure?
Bisicodyl
Colace
Milk of Magnesia
Metamucil
You are discharging a patient from an urgent care center who has been diagnosed with renal
calculi. What instruction will you provide to him?
Notify the doctor immediately if you have pink
tinged urine
Use pyridium to control the pain
Strain your urine and save any stones in a specimen
container for the urologist
You do not to see the urologist as your stone will
pass on its own
Your patient has the following labs: BUN 20, Creat. 1.6 , K+ 4.5, Mg .7, Cl- 100. Which order will you
question
Lasix 40 mg PO Daily
CT Angio
Milk of Magnesia 30 mL PO Daily
Protonix 40 mg IV Daily
A patient presents to the ED complaining of flak pain, nausea, vomiting, increased pain with
urination, and fever. You identify this as probably
Cystitis
Urethritis
Pyelonephritis
Renal Calculi
Which of the following is an aminoglycoside?
Tygacil
Bactrim
Augmentin
Amikacin
Your patient is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO Daily. What
laboratory test will you assess?
CMP
CBC
D - Dimer
PT / INR
Your patient has been diagnosed with HTN. Which of the
following medications would be prescribed?
Propoxyphene
Advair
Tenormin
Bactrim
Which of the following is an ACE Inhibitor?
Verapamil
Enalapril
Atenolol
Atropine
A patient being treated for Myasthenia Gravis is prescribed prednisone 20
mg, SoluMedrol 125mg and . Which of the following order will you question?
Maalox
Advair
Levothyroxine
Erythromycin
When assessing a patient who has developed an anaphylactic
reaction, which of the following would the nurse expect to find?
Difficulty Breathing
Decreased Hct
Swollen Lymph Nodes
Swollen Joints
A patient is receiving warfarin. Which of the following would
the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of therapy?
PT / INR
PTT
Vitamin K level
Platelet Level
A mother asks you how much amoxicillin to give her child. She states that the pharmacist told her 15
ml. She asks how many teaspoons or tablespoons it is. Your reply is:
2 tsp
1 tbsp
2 tbsp
1 tsp
Which of the following is sinus tachycardia?
Tagamet (cimetidine) is what classification?
Proton Pump Inhibitor
Histamine H2 Antagonist
Acid Neutralizer
GI Stimulant
Compazine is what classification?
GI Stimulant
Acid Reducer
Antiemetic
Combined-Product Acid Neutralizer
What generic name is Pepcid?
Famotidine
Ranitidine
Esomeprazole
Promethazine
This medication is used for
constipation and encephalopathy.
Docusate Sodium
Lactulose
MiraLax
Psyllium
Which of the following is a potassium sparing
diuretic?
Bumex
Lasix
Diamox
Aldactone
You enter a patient’s room and find she is lethargic, delirious and has had a history of fatigue,
constipation and dry skin since her diagnosis of Graves’ Disease. You identify this condition and
anticipate what order from the physician?
Levothyroxine 500 mcg IV
Radioactive Iodine
Narcan 1 mg IV
Prednisone 5 mg PO
Which of the following is the functional unit
of the kidneys?
Nephron
Loop of Henley
Proximal Tube
Glomerulus
You have a patient that has been diagnosed with TB. Which of
the following precautions would you include in your care?
Use a negative air pressure room
Use a regular hospital mask when entering the room
or transporting the patient
Request an order for a daily CXR
Administer Maalox as ordered to prevent gastritis
from the administration of INH
Pyridium is prescribed for what?
Overactive Bladder
Treatment of UTI
Relief of UTI pain
Cystitis
Which of the following is a streptobacillus colony?
A patient is receiving levothyroxine 112 mcg PO Daily, Lasix 20 mg PO Daily,
Cardizem 80 mg PO Daily, Coumadin 2.5 mg PO Daily, and Zoloft 50 mg PO Daily.
Which of the following would alert the nurse to a problem?
TSH 3.4
INR 3.5
Troponin 0.01
BUN 18
Your PCT obtains vitals on your patient: 135/60, 14, 57,
97%RA, 2/10 chest pain. Which medication will you hold?
NTG 0.4 mg SL
Simvastatin 10 mg PO
Metoprolol 25mg PO
Zantac 75mg PO
A patient who has been prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin) is also taking
furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg daily. Which of the following electrolyte
imbalances will precipitate the patient to develop digoxin toxicity?
Hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia
Hypermagnesemia
Hyponatremia
Which of the following would you anticipate being prescribed
for a patient with Acute Otitis Media?
Amikacin
Clindamycin
Tetracycline
Sulfadiazine
Which of the following is a long acting insulin?
Humalog
Lantus
Apidra
Humulin N
What is the most accurate method for preventing
adverse effects associated with the use of digoxin?
Teach patients to take their digoxin in divided doses
with each meal.
Teach patients the signs and symptoms of heart
failure.
Monitor therapeutic effects based on
echocardiogram results.
Assess the patient's heart rate and hold
administration if it is less than 60.
The nurse understands that which medication increases
muscular uptake of glucose and increases its use?
Metformin
Januvia
Actos
Amaryl
Which of the following lab values would indicate to the nurse
that there is a medication interaction with acyclovir?
Digoxin Level – 1.8 ng/mL
Lithium Level – 1.0 mEq/L
Propanolol Level – 75 ng/mL
Theophylline Level – 30 mcg / mL
A patient is observed to have a sudden and significant drop in BP,
erythema of the neck and back, fever, chills and paresthesia. You
identify this emergency as a toxic effect of what medication?
PCN
Bactrim
Tetracycline
Vancomycin
You are a critical care nurse caring for a patient taking aminoglycosides. Which of the
following should you monitor closely to determine whether dosage adjustment is
required?
Lung Function
Renal Function
Cardiac Function
Intestinal Function
You are teaching a client at your clinic about non-pharmacologic methods of
controlling serum cholesterol levels. What lifestyle change may help increase
high-density lipoprotein (HDL) levels?
Quitting smoking
Increasing aerobic exercise
Losing weight
All the above changes may help increase HDL levels
Which of the following adverse reactions are unique to
ritonavir?
N/V/D
Circumoral paresthesia
Fatigue
Abdominal Pain
Which of the following is not caused by a Group A
Streptococcal infection?
Lyme Disease
Pneumonia
Otitis Media
Endocarditis
The nurse understands that which supplement may be
prescribed for a patient taking Metformin?
Vitamin D
Potassium
Calcium
Vitamin B12
A patient is prescribed Aricept (donepezil). You anticipate she
has which of the following conditions?
Glaucoma
Alzheimers
Grave’s Disease
Depression
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of Aricept?
Bradycardia
Increased GI Motility
Tachycardia
Urinary Urgency
Why is carbidopa combined with levodopa for Parkinson
patients?
It augments levodopa
It stabilizes carbidopa in some patients
It crosses the blood brain barrier since carbidopa
cannot
It is used as the primary line for Parkinsons
A patient is actively seizing (grand mal). You anticipate which
of the following medications?
Valproic Acid
Ativan
Dilantin
Luminal
Phenytoin can cause which of the following adverse reactions?
Ataxia
Nystagmus
Sedation
All of the above
A patient is suffering from an anxiety attack.
Which of the following will he not exhibit?
Apprehension
Fear
Sedation
Tachycardia
Which of the following is a SSRI?
Paroxetine
Amitriptyline
Buproprion
Duloxetine
The client is experiencing digitalis toxicity and presents with
symptomatic bradycardia. The nurse knows that which of the
following medications may be administered to treat bradycardia?
Alteplase
Atropine
Amiodarone
Amlodipine
Which of the following patients will you most question an
order for MOM 30 ml PRN constipation?
35 year old S/P abdominal surgery
45 year old CHF patient
55 year old dialysis patient
65 year old bladder cancer patient
A patient taking lithium is experiencing N/V/D, polyuria,
increased thirst and slurred speech. You identify this as
what stage of lithium toxicity?
Early
Advanced
Severe
End Stage
A patient is in acute psychosis on your unit. You anticipate
which of the following IM medications for sedation?
Ativan
Tegretol
Haldol
Diazepam
Which of the following medications is labeled for depression
and as an atypical antipsyhcotic?
Risperdol
Abilify
Xanax
Wellbutrin
A patient is prescribed Wellbutrin for depression. Which of
the following will you not include in your instructions?
Discontinue the use of your Nardil
You may get dry mouth
You may have GI distress or constipation
You may experience bradycardia
Which of the following levels would you notify the physician
for?
Lithium 1.1
Phenytoin 15
Valproic Acid 75
Phenobarbital 40
SSRIs treat the following except
Bipolar Disorder
Panic Disorder
Depression
PTSD
Which of the following is an atypical antidepressant
Effexor
Tegretol
Elavil
Prozac
Which of the following stage of acne is mild and is treated
with salicylate acid preparations topically?
Predormal
Inflammatory
Nodular Cystic
Comedonal
Decongestants should be used cautiously in patients with
which of the following?
Glaucoma
Hypotension
Hypothyroidism
Arthritis
To help control the nausea and anorexia that may occur as an adverse reaction
during digoxin therapy, the nurse should recommend which of the following?
Eat Frequent smaller meals
Restrict fluids at mealtime
Eat more protein
Increase water intake 1 hour before and after friends
1, 3, 4
2, 3
1, 2
A diabetic patient presents with tremors, headache and mild
diaphoresis. You identify this as
PNS Response to Hyperglycemia
SNS Response to Hyperglycemia
PNS Response to Hypoglycemia
SNS Response to Hypoglycemia
Which of the following are adverse reactions of celecoxib?
Oliguria
Neutropenia
Diplopia
Stomatitis
All of the Above
Your patient has been prescribed Celebrex. Which
of the following will you include in your teaching?
Take it on an empty absorption
It may take several weeks for the NSAID to reach its
full effect
Celebrex is a controlled substance
Do not drive while on this medication
What classification is HCTZ?
Diuretic
ACE
Beta Blocker
CCB
Which of the following is a synthetic narcotic?
Ketoralac
Tramadol
Oxycontin
Acetameniphen
Which of the following is not true of secondary drugs to
treat tuberculosis TB?
Secondary drugs are less effective than primary drugs.
Secondary drugs are used to treat drug-resistant TB.
Secondary drugs are used as the first line to treat HIV
patients with TB.
Secondary drugs are used to treat extrapulmonary TB.
Secondary drugs are used to treat drug-resistant TB.
A patient is admitted to a healthcare facility with a chronic skin disease manifested by bright red
patches covered with silvery scales or plaques, and has been prescribed anthralin by the primary
healthcare provider. The nurse should know that the patient is suffering from which of the following?
Psoriasis
Tinea Pedis
Erysipelas
Impetigo
An infant comes to the clinic with extreme diaper rash that has spread over the
entire genitalia and begun to advance down both legs. The physician orders a
topical ointment to treat this problem. Which of the following should the nurse
include in teaching the parents about this ointment?
Apply as often as you would like.
Do not use a tight diaper after applying this
ointment.
Apply a dressing over the ointment so it does not
rub off.
Apply the diaper tightly and that will prevent
needing to use a dressing.
Your patientis admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetic ketoacidosis. You
know that your client will be placed on an intravenous insulin drip. The only type of
insulin which can be administered intravenously is:
NPH
Lente
Ultralente
Regular
You are treating a patient with a history of RA and who is taking
Prednisone, Humira and Enbrel. Which of the following orders would
you most question?
FluMist Influenza Vaccine (intranasal)
Orange Juice with breakfast (regular diet)
ASA 325mg PO Daily
Digoxin 0.25mg PO Daily
Order: 6 L LR to infuse over 2 hours
Drip Factor: 25 gtt / ml
Calculate the drops per minute
Order: Ibuprofen 10 mg/kg
Available: acetaminophen elixir 125mg / 5 mL
Weight: 25 pounds
How many mL will you administer?
Order: Tylenol 15 mg/kg
Available: acetaminophen elixir 125 mg / 7.5 ml
Weight: 42 pounds
Which of the following is a potassium sparing diuretic?
Lasix
Aldactone
HCTZ
Bumex
Which of the following is a loop diuretic?
Bumex
Diuril
HCTZ
Midamor
A patient is prescribed spironolactone for CHF. Which of the
following orders will you question?
ASA 81 mg
Pyridium 100 mg
Verapamil 40 mg
K – Dur 20 mEq
Which of the following is not an antidiarrheal?
loperamide
diphenoxylate and atropine
polyethylene glycol
difenoxin
A patient is prescribed bisacodyl 5 mg. Which of the following
will you include in your patient education?
Avoid milk
Decrease your water intake
Take an antacid with this pill to reduce GI
discomfort
It will usually take only 2 hours for a bowel
movement to occur once you take the medication
Which of the following is a H2 antagonist?
Protonix
Tagamet
Nexium
Prilosec
Which of the following disease modifying antirheumatic
drugs (DMARDs) should not be used in patients with
congestive heart failure?
Etanercept (Enbrel)
Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)
Anakinra (Kineret)
Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
Glycosylated hemoglobin levels provide evidence of blood glucose
control over how long of a period?
30 Days
60 Days
90 Days
120 Days
A physician has prescribed desiccated thyroid USP for thyroid-stimulating
hormone suppression. The patient is also taking serotonin reuptake inhibitors to
overcome depression. What condition should the nurse monitor for in this
patient as a result of the interaction of the two drugs?
Prolonged Bleeding
Decreased Effectiveness of the thyroid drug
Increased risk of paresthesia
Increased risk of hypoglycemia
Which of the following is a rapid acting insulin?
Humalog
Lantus
Levemir
Humulin N
The nurse has just completed discharge instructions to a patient who
will be using a pen device to deliver his insulin dose. What statement by
the patient indicates a need for further instruction?
"I need to turn the dial on the pen and listen for the
locking ring before administering my insulin."
"If I forget to take my insulin pen, I will be able to
use the one that my wife uses."
"I determine my dosage by the number of clicks that
I hear and by visualizing the dosage window"
"This will make it easier for me to give my own
insulin because of my poor eyesight."
The nurse should teach patients who are taking
thyroid hormones to do which of the following?
Take the medication in divided doses in the morning
and evening
Take the medication at bedtime.
Take the medication in the evening after dinner.
Take the medication on an empty stomach
Insulin binds with and activates receptors on cell membranes. Once
insulin-receptor binding occurs, the membranes become highly
permeable to glucose. Which of the following actions does this
enable?
Release of glucagon from the cells
Entry of glucose into the cells
Interruption of glucose movement across the
membrane
Storage of glucagon in the cells
A nursing student has been instructed that total parenteral
nutrition (TPN) should never be stopped suddenly but instead
the patient should gradually be weaned from it because
Sudden withdrawal of TPN can cause rebound
hyperglycemia
Sudden withdrawal of TPN can cause rebound
hypoglycemia.
Sudden withdrawal of TPN can cause hypotension
Sudden withdrawal of TPN can cause hypertension
The nurse caring for a postoperative patient documents the following
data: flushed dry skin, dry mucous membranes, hypotension, and
lethargy. The patient states that he is thirsty and requests water.
Which of the following conditions do these data support?
Hypernatremia
Hyperkalemia
Hypercalcemia
Hypermagnesemia
A patient has been taking oral amoxicillin to treat otitis media
for the past 6 days and has told the nurse that his ear is now
“back to normal.” He asks the nurse if he can now stop taking
his antibiotics. How should the nurse respond?
"That's excellent that you're feeling better, but it's
important to keep taking the antibiotics until they're all
finished."
"Try reducing your dose by half. If your ear infection
gets worse, resume the dose you've been taking until
now."
"You should stop taking the antibiotics because if
you don't, it could cause antibiotic resistance."
"You can likely stop taking the antibiotics, but keep
them on hand in case your infection returns."
A patient is diagnosed with hypocalcemia. Which of the
following conditions most commonly causes this condition?
Cancer
Parathyroid hormone deficit
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Immobilization
A triage nurse in the Emergency Department is assessing a 78-yearold male. It is determined that the patient is experiencing severe
digoxin toxicity. What drug will the nurse administer immediately?
Inamrinone (Inocor)
Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind)
Verapamil hydrochloride (Calan)
Quinidine sulfate
After reviewing the signs and symptoms of heart failure, a
student demonstrates understanding when he identifies which
finding as associated with right sided heart failure?
Hemoptysis
Dyspnea
Polyuria
Peripheral Edema
To maximize absorption of digoxin, the nurse would
instruct the client to avoid taking the drug with
which of following?
Milk
Eggs
Beans
Cream Soup
A nurse is caring for a patient with a musculoskeletal
disorder and inability to ambulate. What intervention
should the nurse perform when caring for this patient?
Change patient’s position Q2 hours
Encourage patient to walk with assistance
Encourage patient to exercise with assistance
Increase fat and caloric intake
Which of the following is an adverse effect of anakinra, a
DMARD, and should be monitored for?
Constipation
Abdominal Pain
Retinal Changes
Pancytopenia
Which of the following is the most common adverse reaction to the muscle
relaxant carisoprodol (Soma) that the nurse should discuss with the patient?
Drowsiness
Dyspnea
Hypertension
Tachycacrdia
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed alendronate for the
treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis. The patient informs the nurse
that she is also taking antacids for the relief of gastric upset. What effect of
the interaction between the two drugs should the nurse anticipate in the
patient?
Increased risk of hypoglycemia
Decreased effectiveness of alendronate
Decreased effectiveness of antacids
Increased risk of hypotension
A client diagnosed with Crohn’s disease is taking a diseasemodifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD). What is this client’s
top priority of care?
Assess blood pressure frequ
Observe for alopecia
Tell the client to report any nausea.
Monitor for signs of infection
A patient is to be administered glipizide (Glucotrol).
Which of the following factors would prohibit the
administration of glipizide (Glucotrol) to this patient?
A diagnosis of hypertension
Allergy to sulfonamides
The ingestion of carbohydrates
Increase in alkaline phosphatase
A patient receives a dose of insulin lispro at 8 AM. The
nurse would be alert for signs and symptoms of
hypoglycemia at which time?
Between 8:30 AM and 9:30 AM
Between 10 AM and 12 noon
Between 2 PM and 4 PM
Between 12 noon and 8 PM
A patient has been prescribed acarbose (Precose). What
is the advantage of acarbose?
It is used instead of other antidiabetic agents.
The patient does not have to limit food intake.
It is 90% bound to plasma proteins.
It delays the digestion of complex carbohydrates.
A patient who has ongoing pain issues has been
prescribed meperidine (Demerol) IM. How should
the nurse best administer this medication?
Into the patient's vascular space using a large-gauge
needle
Into the patient shoulder muscle using a smallgauge needle
Into the patient's buttocks using a small- to
medium-gauge needle
Into the patient's thigh using a large-gauge needle
The patient with herpes simplex comes to the clinic. He states that he
has multiple outbreaks of cold sores each year. The physician's drug of
choice for this patient would be which of the following?
Abreva
Lotrimin
Ultra
Mentax
A patient is given a prescription for fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair) 250/50 to
inhale one puff twice a day, before leaving the hospital after an acute asthma
attack. The nurse completing the patient’s discharge counseling should tell him
which of the following?
Take it as needed
Continue carrying a rescue inhaler
Check peak flow daily
Rinse your mouth after each use
Shake the meter well before using
1, 2, 4
2, 3, 4
2, 3, 4
A client with a history of cardiovascular disease is taking a
thyroid hormone and complains of chest pain. What is the
nurse’s best action?
Administer the next does of thyroid hormone
Recommend increasing the next dose of thyroid
hormone.
Reassure the client that this symptom resolves after
several weeks of therapy.
Notify the health care provider.
Which of the following antibiotics act on cell wall synthesis?
Carbapenems
Quinolones
Macrolides
Tetracyclines
Which of the following antibiotics act on folate synthesis?
PCN
Bacitracin
Bactrim
Zyvox
A client is ordered 35 milligrams of Codeine phosphate by subcutaneous
injection. 50 mg/ml of liquid for SC Injection is available. How many ml
will you administer?
Calculate the drip rate for 100 mls of IV Fluids to be given over
a half hour via a giving set which delivers 10 drops/ml.
1 L of Normal Saline is charted over 9 hours. The drop factor is
15. Calculate the number of drops per minute.
Order: Tylenol 15mg / kg
Available: Tylenol elixer 125 mg / 10 mL
Weight: 33 pounds
We’re Done
Pharmacology Practice Assessment
Assessment ID
5644691
Password
65J5777P57
ATI