Transcript 2. The prenatal stage of development has three

1. Psychology is defined as:
• A) the study of dreams and childhood
trauma
• B) the study of behavior.
• C) the scientific study of behavior and
mental processes.
• D) the science of behavior and
consequences.
5.
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An essay of the political philosopher
_____, arguing the mind is a blank slate,
helped form modern empiricism.
A) Bacon
B) Locke
C) Descartes
D) Plato
6. The first psychological laboratory was
established by:
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A) Wilhelm Wundt.
B) Sigmund Freud.
C) John Locke.
D) B.F. Skinner.
7. Tichner believed in the method
called ____ to investigate psychological
processes.
• A) the experimental method
• B) cause-and-effect
relationships
• C) introspection
• D) psychoanalysis
8. William James studied behavior based on
how it was adaptive. He was heavily
influenced by _____.
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A) John Locke
B) Charles Darwin
C) Sigmund Freud
D) Francis Bacon
11. Watson and Skinner would be in
agreement in their:
• A) high esteem of psychoanalysis.
• B) dismissal of introspection.
• C) definition of psychology as the study of
behavior and mental processes.
• D) study of cognitive neuroscience.
13. A psychologist explains human mate
selection in terms of helping the species to
continue. She is using the ____ perspective.
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A) social-cultural
B) neuroscience
C) evolutionary
D) biological
15. In studying anger, the psychologist who views an
anger outburst as an outlet for unconscious hostility
is coming from the ___ perspective.
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A) neuroscience
B) evolutionary
C) cognitive
D) psychodynamic
17. The ___ has a medical degree and
prescribes medication.
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A) clinical psychologist
B) neuropsychologist
C) psychiatrist
D) all of the above
1. Psychology is currently defined as:
• A) the scientific study of behavior.
• B) the scientific study of behavior and
mental processes.
• C) the scientific study of biological and
cognitive processes.
• D) the scientific study of motives and
conflicts.
2. The ____ administers tests and provides
therapy and the ___ prescribes medication.
• A) clinical psychologist; psychiatrist
• B) psychiatrist; clinical psychologist
• C) counseling psychologist; clinical
psychologist
• D) school psychologist; clinical
psychologist
4. Dr. James proposes that men’s desire for
young, healthy women contributes to the
survival of the human species. He is taking
the ___ perspective.
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A) psychodynamic
B) neurological
C) evolutionary
D) socio-cultural
6. Julie appeared not to be surprised when the
couple broke up. “I could have predicted that,”
she said. Julie is demonstrating:
• A) ESP.
• B) hindsight bias.
• C) overestimation the extent to
which others share her opinion.
• D) correlation proves causation.
10. The following is an example of an
operational definition:
• A) stress is defined as how well a person adjusts to
his/her environment.
• B) personality is defined as how well that person
relates to others.
• C) empathy is defined as showing you can
understand the other person’s feelings.
• D) intelligence is defined as a score on
an
intelligence test.
• E) all of the above.
11. When everybody has an equal chance
of being included in a study, this process is
called:
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A) unbiased reporting.
B) a survey.
C) a random sample.
D) reliability.
12. Which of the following correlation
coefficients reflects the strongest
correlation?
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A) +.10
B) -.64
C) +.35
D) -.10
13. A mistaken belief that two factors or
events are related when they are not is
called:
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A) the rule of falsifiability.
B) pseudoscience.
C) an illusory correlation.
D) paranormal phenomena.
15. Consistently, we find low self-esteem is
often related with high levels of depression.
This means:
• A) low self-esteem causes depression.
• B) depression causes low self-esteem.
• C) low self-esteem and depression are
caused by a third factor.
• D) they are correlated but this does not
prove causation.
16. In order to prove a cause-andeffect relationship, we must use:
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A) naturalistic observation.
B) the experimental method.
C) human subjects.
D) correlation coefficients.
17. In an experiment, the group of participants
who are exposed to the treatment of interest is in
the:
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A) control condition.
B) independent condition.
C) placebo condition.
D) experimental condition.
18. Neither the researcher nor the subjects
knew whether or not they received the drug
studied or a placebo. This is an example of:
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A) expectancy effects.
B) placebo effects.
C) a double-blind study.
D) nothing. It would be ridiculous.
20. Dr. Schulte wants to investigate if
aggressive behavior in children is increased
if they view violent videos. In this instance,
the dependent variable is:
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A) violent videos.
B) aggressive behavior.
C) a placebo.
D) the control condition.
21. Which measure of central tendency
is the exact middle score of a distribution
of scores?
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A) mean
B) median
C) mode
D) coefficient
1. Branching fibers extending out from the
cell body to receive information from other
neurons are called:
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A) axons.
B) glial cells.
C) dendrites.
D) axon terminals.
2. ___ wrap(s) many axons,
insulating them and speeding their
impulses.
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A) Sodium ions
B) Myelin
C) Glial cells
D) Potassium ions
3. The brief electrical impulse
transmitted along the axon is called the:
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A) action potential.
B) stimulus threshold.
C) electrical cascade.
D) sodium pump.
6. The device called a(n) ___ provides
moment-by-moment images of the brain’s
changing activity and is noninvasive.
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A) EEG
B) PET scan
C) MRI
D) fMRI
7. The ___ receives information from all
the senses except smell.
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A) hippocampus
B) amygdala
C) thalamus
D) angular gyrus
8. The ____ is located at the back of the
brain and is responsible for muscle
coordination, posture and equilibrium.
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A) corpus callosum
B) reticular formation
C) pons
D) cerebellum
9. These make up most of the cerebral
cortex, and enable learning, memory and
integrating information.
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A) reticular formations
B) projection areas
C) association areas
D) temporal lobes
10. Auditory information is received
and processed in the:
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A) somatosensory cortex.
B) temporal lobe.
C) parietal lobe.
D) frontal lobe.
11. An impaired use of language due
to a brain lesion is known as:
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A) tomography.
B) aphasia.
C) plasticity.
D) phrenology.
12. The ability of one part of the brain to
take over the function of another in case
of injury is called:
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A) plasticity.
B) neurogenesis.
C) brain reintegration.
D) neural net reformation.
13. After Sam’s stroke, he had difficulty
speaking, but could understand what
others were saying to him. He likely had
damage to:
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A) Wernicke’s Area.
B) Broca’s Area.
C) his Thalamus.
D) his parietal lobe.
14. After a sky-diving accident, Laurie was
unable to make sense of other people’s
speech. It is likely that her cortex was
damaged in:
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A) the sensory area.
B) Broca’s area.
C) the angular gyrus.
D) Wernicke’s area.
15. In a recent car accident, Justin sustained
damage to his right cerebral hemisphere.
This injury is most likely to reduce his ability
to:
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A) tell an angry face from a happy one.
B) solve arithmetic problems.
C) speak clearly.
D) process information quickly.
16. In order for you to experience the pain of
being stuck with a pin, ___ must first relay
messages from your ankle to your central
nervous system.
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A) the limbic system.
B) interneurons.
C) sensory neurons.
D) the reticular formation.
17. When you’re stressed and your heart
races, perspiration increases and pupils
dilate, the ___ is activated.
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A) somatic nervous system
B) parasympathetic branch
C) sympathetic branch
D) spinal reflex
19. The ____ system is made up of
glands which secret ___ into the
bloodstream.
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A) peripheral nervous; antagonists
B) sympathetic; neurotransmitters
C) autonomic; action potentials
D) endocrine; hormones
21. This device is often used to diagnose
seizure activity by recording electrical
activity of the brain:
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A) CAT scan.
B) EEG.
C) PET scan.
D) MRI.
22. A person with a “split brain” had
surgery to cut the:
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A) frontal lobe.
B) corpus callosum.
C) sensory from the motor strip.
D) cerebellum from the cerebral
cortex.
23. The person most likely to suggest that the
shape of a person’s skull indicates the extent to
which that individual is argumentative and
aggressive would be a:
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A) neurologist.
B) behavior geneticist.
C) psychoanalyst.
D) phrenologist.
24: Phineas Gage had extensive damage to
his ____ of the brain, effecting his ____.
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A) frontal lobe; personality
B) right hemisphere; speech
C) left temporal lobe; reasoning
D) cerebellum; coordination
25. Stimulate this area in a cat, and it will
either fear a mouse or become extremely
aggressive.
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A) hippocampus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) amygdala.
D) thalamus.
2. The prenatal stage of development
has three phases, in the order of:
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A) embryo, fetus, zygote.
B) zygote, fetus, embryo.
C) fertile, fetal, birth.
D) zygote, embryo, fetus.
3. Teratogens are:
• A) recessive genes that result in birth
defects.
• B) microorganisms that can cause
mutations in normal development.
• C) toxic agents which can cause defects in
an embryo or fetus.
• D) alleles that react negatively to the
environment.
6. Touching a newborn’s cheek can trigger the
___ reflex, turning its head toward the source
of touch and opening its mouth.
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A) sucking.
B) rooting.
C) grasping.
D) nuzzling.
7. Newborns prefer to look at:
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A) a bull’s eye pattern.
B) a human face.
C) a circle.
D) a shiny object.
8. As infants gain familiarity with repeated
exposure to a visual stimulus, their interest
wanes and they look away sooner. This is
called:
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A) habituation.
B) visual boredom.
C) visual exhaustion.
D) object permanence.
9. Psychologists who study physical, social
and cognitive changes throughout the
human life cycle are:
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A) child psychologists.
B) developmental psychologists.
C) clinical psychologists.
D) cognitive-behavioral psychologists.
10. Timmy’s father covered up a toy with
a towel. At age 4 months, Timmy did not
look for it, but at 5 months, Timmy lifted
the towel to get the toy. Timmy has
developed:
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A) egocentrism.
B) object permanence.
C) accommodation.
D) conservation.
12. An adolescent’s occasional impulsive
and immature behavior is at least partly a
reflection of the last brain area to mature,
the:
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A) frontal cortex.
B) temporal lobes.
C) sensory strip.
D) parietal lobes.
13. According to Kohlberg’s theory of
moral development, following the
“letter of the law” is:
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A) called conventional morality.
B) called postconventional morality.
C) the highest level of morality.
D) difficult for adolescents.
14. According to Erik Erikson’s Psychosocial
Stages of Development, adolescence must
deal with the psychosocial conflict of:
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A) intimacy vs. isolation.
B) identity vs. role confusion.
C) industry vs. inferiority.
D) initiative vs. guilt.
17. During middle adulthood, the primary
psychosocial task is to:
• A) experiment with different roles.
• B) review his or her life to find
meaningfulness.
• C) establish lasting and meaningful
relationships.
• D) contribute to future generations.
20. On which of the following tasks are
60-year-old adults most likely to
outperform 20-year-old adults?
• A) analogies.
• B) solving an abstract geometry problem.
• C) recalling previously presented nonsense
syllables.
• D) answering questions quickly.
25. Jamie does not steal a candy bar from the
store because he is afraid his mother will
spank him if he is caught. Jamie best
represents a(n) _____ morality.
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A) preoperational
B) preconventional
C) conventional
D) postconventional
1. Cones are different from rods in
that:
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A) rods respond to color.
B) cones respond to color.
C) cones need less light.
D) B and C are true.
2. The center of the retina is the
___ and has mostly ___.
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A) fovea; cones
B) fovea; rods
C) blind spot; ganglion cells
D) optic disk; nerves
3. The lens thins or thickens to focus
light in a process known as:
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A) visual sharpening.
B) lens bending.
C) accommodation.
D) optic chiasm.
4. Weber’s law has to do with the ___
of a stimulus.
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A) absolute threshold
B) just noticeable difference
C) subliminal threshold
D) sensory adaptation
7. The sequence of hearing is in the
order of:
• A) eardrum, auditory canal, middle ear,
inner ear.
• B) cochlea, eardrum, middle ear, inner ear.
• C) eardrum, middle ear, auditory canal,
cochlea.
• D) auditory canal, eardrum, middle ear,
cochlea.
11. Unlike other senses, the sense of
___ does not travel to the thalamus, but
goes directly to the cerebral cortex.
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A) gustation
B) olfaction
C) vestibular
D) kinesthesia
12. Receptor cells have been identified
for five tastes including sweet, salty,
sour, ___ and ___.
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A) wet; rough
B) hot; bitter
C) spicy; acrid
D) bitter; umami
13. The kinesthetic sense involves:
• A) the sense of balance or equilibrium.
• B) the sense of pain.
• C) the location and position of body
parts in relation to each other.
• D) hair-like receptor cells in the
semicircular canals.
14. The gate-control theory has to do
with:
• A) how the brain regulates pain.
• B) how the brain sensitizes us to feel
more acutely.
• C) providing information about body
position and movement.
• D) difference thresholds in the sense of
touch.
16. Analyzing that begins with the
sensory receptors and works up to the
brain’s integration of data is called:
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A) sensory processing.
B) bottom-up processing.
C) natural order integration.
D) informational flow.
17. The minimum stimulus necessary to
detect it 50% of the time is called the:
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A) central tendency.
B) minimum flash point.
C) absolute threshold.
D) sensory half-life.
18. A movie theater’s manager wants to sell
more popcorn by flashing subliminal
advertising during the previews. You tell him:
• A) subliminal persuasion doesn’t work.
• B) he needs to do it several times.
• C) he must accompany it with a bell.
• D) he has to time it differently for it
work on different people.
to
20. Applying Weber’s Law to business, if a
$5 meal has to increase to $5.50 for us to
notice much of a difference, how much
would a $20,000 car have to increase for us
to notice?
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A) $2,000
B) $200
C) $5,000
D) $1,000
22. ___ theory assumes that stimulus
detection depends on experience,
expectations, motivation, and level of
alertness.
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A) Stimulus-response
B) Choice pattern recognition
C) Signal detection
D) Sensory consolidation
24: The blind spot does not normally
impair vision because:
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A) the eyes are constantly moving
B) what one eye misses the other sees.
C) our brain fills in the spaces.
D) all of the above.
1. When two or more lights blink on and off
in quick succession, it gives the appearance of
movement. This is called the:
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A) movement illusion.
B) phi phenomenon.
C) visual capture.
D) optical tracking illusion.
6. We sometimes reverse images because of
changes in the relationship of:
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A) light and shadow.
B) figure-ground.
C) size and dimension.
D) connectedness.
7. We see this as two figures together
rather than as many curved and straight
lines because of the rule of:
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A) connectedness.
B) proximity.
C) continuity.
D) similarity.
8. Relative Clarity helps us to
determine ___ because:
• A) size; clear objects appear larger.
• B) depth; clear objects appear farther.
• C) luminescence; nearer objects are
brighter.
• D) depth; distant objects appear hazy.
9. If we assume that two objects are similar in
size, the one that casts the smaller retinal
image is assumed to be:
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A) closer.
B) smaller.
C) farther away.
D) larger.
11. If a person were to wear glasses that
distorted vision upside down, that
person:
• A) would eventually adapt.
• B) would never adapt.
• C) would have his vision permanently
distorted.
• D) would adapt but now must always
wear the glasses to see.
13. Dave was listening to sad music when he
heard the word, “morning,” which he
mistook for, “mourning.” He was influenced
by:
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A) clinical depression.
B) context effect.
C) depressogenic schemas.
D) a low level of serotonin.
16. “The whole is greater than the sum of its
parts,” has been most associated with a:
• A) Clinical psychologist.
• B) Gestalt psychologist.
• C) Cognitive-Behavioral
psychologist.
• D) Perceptual psychologist.
17.Retinal disparity refers to the:
• A) tendency to see parallel lines as coming
together in the distance.
• B) tendency to see stimuli that are near each
other as parts of a unified object.
• C) somewhat different images our two eyes
receive of the same object.
• D) extent to which our eyes turn toward
each other when looking at an object.
18. The perceptual tendency to fill in gaps in
order to perceive disconnected parts as a
whole object is called:
• A) closure.
• B) constancy.
• C) interposition.
• D) convergence.
19. All of the following are monocular
cues of depth perception except:
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A) motion parallax.
B) linear perspective.
C) convergence.
D) relative height.
E) texture gradient.
21. When we expect to see something
because of prior learning experiences, such
as seeing clouds as UFO’s, it is because of:
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A) bottom-up processing.
B) previous abductions.
C) hypnotic suggestion.
D) perceptual set.
23. Even though a door may reflect quite a
different retinal image when it is open than
when it is closed, we still see it as the same,
rectangular door because of:
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A) illusory contours.
B) shape constancy.
C) retinal disparity.
D) perceptual closure.
25. As she gazed down from a bridge at
the rapidly flowing river, Nancy felt as
thought she were moving. Her
experience best illustrates the
phenomenon of:
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A) retinal disparity.
B) perceptual adaptation.
C) location constancy.
D) visual capture.
1. Consciousness is:
• A) the ability to solve problems, reason, and
remember.
• B) the sudden and often novel realization of
the solution to a problem.
• C) the process of organizing and interpreting
sensory information.
• D) our awareness of ourselves and our
environment.
4. Altered states of consciousness are
physiologically induced, like ___; and
psychologically induced, like ___.
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A) hallucinations; meditation
B) dreaming; hallucinations
C) sensory deprivation; orgasm
D) orgasm; oxygen deprivation
5.
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An evolutionary explanation about why
we sleep would be to:
A) repair our brain.
B) promote growth.
C) keep us safe.
D) help us to remember.
6. Biological processes that systematically
vary over a period of 24 hours are called:
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A) daily regimens.
B) circadian rhythms.
C) sleep-wake cycles.
D) lunar cycles.
8. The rhythmic bursts of brain activity
that occur during Stage 2 sleep are
called:
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A) alpha waves.
B) paradoxical sleep.
C) sleep spindles.
D) delta waves.
9. Sleep deprivation has been
shown to:
• A) increase attentiveness to highly
motivating tasks.
• B) reduce hypertension.
• C) enhance memory.
• D) diminish immunity to disease.
17. The need to take larger and larger
doses of a drug in order to experience
its effects is an indication of:
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A) withdrawal.
B) dissociation.
C) resistance.
D) tolerance.
21. After ingesting a small dose of a drug, Jen
experienced vivid visual hallucinations and felt
as if she were separated from her own body.
She most likely experienced the effects of:
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A) cocaine.
B) LSD.
C) heroin.
D) marijuana.
22. Which of the following is an
amphetamine that acts as a mild
hallucinogen?
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A) Marijuana
B) Nembutal
C) Ecstasy
D) LSD
1. In Pavlov’s experiment, the dog’s
salivation to the bell is the:
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A) unconditioned stimulus.
B) unconditioned response.
C) conditioned stimulus.
D) conditioned response.
2. Jimmy was frightened by a barking
dog. For the next few months, he was
afraid of all dogs. This is an example of:
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A) stimulus generalization.
B) stimulus discrimination.
C) unconditioned response.
D) unconditioned stimulus.
3. After repeatedly presenting the CS
without the UCS, the CR will gradually
disappear. This is called:
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A) extinguished reaction.
B) extinction.
C) stimulus discrimination.
D) stimulus neutralization.
4. Once extinction has occurred, the CR
may return if enough time has passed.
This is an example of:
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A) spontaneous remission.
B) stimulus generalization.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) conditioned recurrence.
5.
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Which of the following would be an
example of Classical Conditioning being
applied to practical problems?
A) teaching a dog to wag its tail?
B) using methadone for heroine addicts.
C) applying electric shock to depressed
patients.
D) giving alcoholics a drug to make them
sick if they drink.
6. Purchasing state lottery tickets is
reinforced with monetary winnings on a
_____ schedule.
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A) fixed-interval
B) variable-interval
C) fixed-ratio
D) variable-ratio
7. In ____, a response is strengthened
in order to avoid something unpleasant.
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A) punishment.
B) negative reinforcement.
C) partial reinforcement.
D) positive reinforcement.
10. If you want to teach a pigeon to eat out
of your hand, you would place some bird
seed closer and closer to you until it finally
had to come to your hand. This is called:
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A) intermittent reinforcement.
B) shaping.
C) partial reinforcement.
D) continuous reinforcement.
11. Jeremy wears his baseball cap
backward because he noticed his older
brother does so. This illustrates the
importance of:
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A) respondent behavior.
B) immediate reinforcement.
C) shaping.
D) modeling.
12. Albert Bandura contends that most
human behavior:
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A) is acquired through observational learning.
B) is shaped through repeated trial-and error.
C) is reinforced through positive conditioning.
D) is planned out and not accidental.
13. In Bandura’s Bobo Doll
experiment, he demonstrated:
• A) aggressive children will imitate aggressive
behavior.
• B) children will imitate aggressive behavior
just by observing it.
• C) children who are non-aggressive will not
imitate aggressive behavior.
• D) children will imitate aggressive behavior is
reinforced with candy.
15. Based on what researchers have found
about the effect of modeling on behavior,
• A) we can decrease violence in our society if we
decrease the amount of violence on TV.
• B) we can increase pro-social behavior if we
increase the amount of it on TV.
• C) all of the above.
• D) none of the above; TV doesn’t change the
way people behave.
16. After a week at college, Kim has
formed a mental representation of the
layout of the campus and no longer gets
lost. She has developed a:
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A) visual memory.
B) perceptual delineation.
C) cognitive map.
D) retinal disparity.
17. The fact that learning can occur
without reinforcement is most clearly
demonstrated by studies of:
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A) shaping.
B) latent learning.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) computer-assisted instruction.
19. It is easier to train a dog to bark for
food than to train it to stand on its hind
legs for food. This best illustrates the
importance of ______ in learning.
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A) primary reinforcement
B) generalization
C) negative reinforcers
D) biological predispositions
20. According to Thorndike’s Law of
Effect, when responses are followed by
something unpleasant:
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A) the response is strengthened.
B) the unpleasant stimulus is avoided.
C) the response is weakened.
D) the CR is extinguished.
21. Toddlers taught to fear speeding cars
may also begin to fear speeding trucks
and motorcycles. This best illustrates:
•
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•
•
A) generalization.
B) secondary reinforcement.
C) shaping.
D) latent learning.
22. By pushing vending machine buttons,
children often learn that this action is
associated with the delivery of a candy bar.
This best illustrates the process underlying:
•
•
•
•
A) latent learning.
B) intermittent reinforcement.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) operant conditioning.
24: A child’s fear at the sight of a
hypodermic needle is a(n):
•
•
•
•
A) conditioned response.
B) unconditioned stimulus.
C) conditioned stimulus.
D) unconditioned response.
25. In explaining juvenile delinquency,
B.F. Skinner would most likely have
emphasized:
•
•
•
•
A) inherited predispositions.
B) unconscious conflicts.
C) faulty child-rearing practices.
D) a lack of moral values in contemporary
society.