Transcript genetic material lactic acid bacterium

1. Which of the following particles is
negatively charged?
A. electron
B. isotope
C. neutron
D. proton
2. Identify the proteins that speed up the
rate of chemical reactions.
A. substrates
B. enzymes
C. ions
D. reactants
3. What causes the overall charge of an atom to
be zero?
A. an equal number of
protons and neutrons
B. an equal number of
protons and electrons
C. an equal number of
neutrons and electrons
4. What provides the energy for all living
processes?
A. chemical bonds
B. ionic compounds
C. radioactive isotopes
D. van der Waals forces
5. How does an enzyme increase the rate of a
chemical reaction?
A. It acts as a reactant.
B. It reduces the amount
of heat produced.
C. It increases the
amount of product.
D. It lowers the activation
energy.
6. What occurs at the active
site in the enzyme substrate
complex?
A. An exothermic chemical
reaction takes place.
B. Chemical bonds are broken
and new bonds are formed.
C. The enzyme gets used up
in the reaction.
D. The substrates provide
energy for the enzyme.
7. What type of bonds attracts water
molecules to each other and to other
substances?
A. covalent bonds
B. double bonds
C. hydrogen bonds
D. ionic bonds
8. Which ion, when released in water,
causes a solution to be basic?
A. Cl–
B. OH–
C. H+
D. Na+
9. Which element do almost all biological
molecules contain?
A. carbon
B. nitrogen
C. phosphorus
D. sodium
10. What are fats, oils, and waxes
composed of?
A. lipids
B. nucleotides
C. polypeptides
D. sugars
11. What are the monomers that make up
proteins?
A. amino acids
B. fatty acids
C. glycerols
D. nucleotides
12. Which fruit contains a higher
concentration of hydrogen ions?
A. tomatoes
B. bananas
13. What do cellulose and chitin have in
common?
A. They are energystoring polymers.
B. They are found in the
cells of animals.
C. They are structural
polysaccharides.
D. They are composed of
repeating sucrose units.
14. Which polysaccharide stores energy
in muscle and liver tissue?
A. gluten
B. glycogen
C. starch
D. sucrolose
15. What is the function of this
biological macromolecule?
A. communicate signals
between cells
B. produce vitamins
and hormones
C. provide support
and protection
D. store and transmit
genetic information
16. Which is a characteristic of all lipids?
A. They are saturated
triglycerides.
B. They do not dissolve
in water.
C. They are liquid at room
temperature.
D. They store less energy
than carbohydrates.
17. Which is not a part of the cell theory?
A. Cells are the basic unit of
structure and organization of
all living things.
B. All living things are composed
of one or more cells.
C. Cells arise only from previously
existing cells.
D. Cells are produced
spontaneously as an organism
grows.
18. Which cell organelles are directly involved
with the production of proteins?
A. ribosomes, endoplasmic
reticulum, nucleus
B. cell membrane, lysosome,
Golgi apparatus
C. nucleus, centriole, vacuole
D. endoplasmic reticulum,
cilia, mitochondrion
19. Robert Hooke and Anton van
Leeuwenhoek designed microscopes
that enabled them to see organelles
within the cells they observed.
A. true
B. false
20. All cells, whether eukaryotic or
prokaryotic, have a plasma membrane.
A. true
B. false
21. What feature of eukaryotic cells has
enabled them to develop more specific
functions than prokaryotic cells?
A. nucleus
B. organelles
C. genetic material (DNA)
D. larger cell size
22. Which term describes the function of
proteins found on the outer surface of the
plasma membrane?
A. identifiers
B. receptors
C. supporters
D. transporters
23. In prokaryotic cells, where does the
conversion of fuel particles into usable
energy occur?
A. cytoplasm
B. DNA
C. mitochondria
D. ribosomes
24. Which organelle is similar to the section
of a factory that organizes, boxes, and
ships the final product?
A. chloroplast
B. endoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi apparatus
D. mitochondrion
25. In which structure is light energy
captured and converted to chemical
energy?
A. chloroplast
B. lysosome
C. nucleus
D. vacuole
26. Which type of cellular transport does not
require an input of energy?
A. active transport
B. endocytosis
C. exocytosis
D. facilitated diffusion
27. How does osmosis occur
between the two solutions
separated by the selectively
permeable membrane?
A. Sugar moves to the left.
B. Sugar moves to the right.
C. Water moves to the left.
D. Water moves to the right.
28. Which diagram shows a cell in a
hypotonic solution?
A.
B.
C.
29. Identify the structure represented by this
image.
Answer: plasma membrane and phospholipid
bilayer
30. _______ is the net movement of particles
from an area where there are many particles of
the substance to an area where there are
fewer particles of the substance.
A. Diffusion
B. Endocytosis
C. Exocytosis
D. Equilibrium
31. What is the magnification of a compound
light microscope that uses a 10X lens in
series with a 25X lens?
A. 2.5X
B. 25X
C. 35X
D. 250X
32. Muscle cells require a great amount of
energy. Which would you expect to find
in large numbers in muscle cells?
A. centrioles
B. endoplasmic reticulum
C. mitochondria
D. ribosomes
33. In what type of cell would you most likely
expect to find numerous lysosomes?
A. a plant cell that stores food,
enzymes, or other materials
B. a plant cell that uses light
energy for photosynthesis
C. a single-celled organism that
moves around its environment
D. a white blood cell that digests
bacteria and viruses
34. Why are the carrier proteins that move
substances across a plasma membrane from a
region of higher concentration to a region of lower
concentration called pumps?
A. They require energy to
move substances against a
concentration gradient.
B. They open and close to allow
substances to diffuse across the
plasma membrane.
C. They help with the osmosis of water
through the plasma membrane.
D. They pump water into the cell, causing
the pressure within the cell to increase.
35. Which statement describes the law of
conservation of energy?
A. Energy cannot be
converted or destroyed.
B. Energy can be converted
and destroyed.
C. Energy can be converted
but not destroyed.
D. Energy can be destroyed
but not converted.
36. In which metabolic process are molecules
broken down to produce carbon dioxide and
water?
A. photosynthesis
B. cellular respiration
C. homeostasis
D. fermentation
37. At the end of the Calvin cycle, where is
energy stored?
A. NADPH
B. ATP
C. chloroplast
D. glucose
38. Why is adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
such an important biological molecule?
A. It captures light energy
from the sun.
B. It is produced in anabolic
pathways.
C. It stores and releases
chemical energy.
D. It converts mechanical
energy to thermal energy.
39. Where in the plant cell
does photosynthesis take
place?
A. chloroplasts
B. Golgi apparatus
C. mitochondria
D. vacuoles
40. Which range of
wavelengths is reflected
by chlorophylls a and b?
A. 400-500 nm
B. 500-600 nm
C. 600-700 nm
41. What is the overall purpose of cellular
respiration?
A. to make ATP
B. to process H2O
C. to store glucose
D. to deliver oxygen
42. Which represents the general sequence of
cellular respiration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
TCA cycle  chemiosmosis  glycolysis
glycolysis  Krebs cycle  electron transport
electron absorption  catalysis  phosphorylation
aerobic pathway  anaerobic pathway  fermentation
43. Which stage of cellular respiration is
the anaerobic process?
A. glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. electron transport
44. Which molecule
generated by the Krebs
cycle is a waste product?
A. CoA
B. CO2
C. FADH2
D. NADH
45. Look at the following figure. Which part of the
chloroplast is a sac-like membrane arranged in
stacks?
A. grana
B. stroma
C. thylakoids
D. Golgi apparatus
46. Look at the following
figure. Which molecule is
released when ATP becomes
ADP?
A. phosphate group
B. water molecule
C. ribose sugar
D. energy cells
47. Which side represents
photosynthesis?
A
B
48. At the beginning of photosynthesis, which
molecule is split to produce oxygen (O2) as
a waste product?
A. CO2
B. H2O
C. C6H12O6
D. 3-PGA
49. During what phase do the sister
chromatids line up in the middle of the
cell?
A. interphase
B. metaphase
C. anaphase
D. telophase
50. What happens in the cell during
cytokinesis?
A. The cell grows and carries
out normal functions.
B. The cell copies its DNA
and forms chromosomes.
C. The cell’s nucleus and
nuclear material divide.
D. The cell’s cytoplasm
divides.
51. Which diagram shows anaphase?
A.
B.
C.
D.
52. Which occurs in plant cells but not animal
cells during the cell cycle?
A. formation of a cell plate
B. formation of microtubules
C. formation of a cleavage
furrow at the equator of
the cell
D. movement of
chromosomes to the
poles of the cell
53. Which term refers to the outward
expression of an allele pair?
A. gamete
B. hybrid
C. phenotype
D. genotype
54. Segments of DNA that control the
production of proteins are called _______.
A. chromatids
B. chromosomes
C. genes
D. traits
55. What is the term for a pair of
chromosomes that have the same length,
same centromere position, and carry genes
that control the same traits?
A. diploid
B. heterozygous
C. homozygous
D. homologous
56. How does the number of chromosomes in
gametes compare with the number of
chromosomes in body cells?
A. Gametes have 1/4 the
number of chromosomes.
B. Gametes have 1/2 the
number of chromosomes.
C. Gametes have the same
number of chromosomes.
D. Gametes have twice as
many chromosomes.
57. In rabbits, gray fur (G) is dominant to black
fur (g). If a heterozygous male is crossed with
a heterozygous female, what is the phenotypic
ratio of the possible offspring?
A. 1:1
B. 1:2:1
C. 2:1
D. 3:1
58. Which explains how the shuffling of genes
during meiosis results in billions of possible
combinations?
A. crossing over
B. gene linkage
C. genetic recombination
D. independent segregation
59. Two genes on the same chromosome
may become separated during meiosis.
A. true
B. false
60. Which stage of meiosis
is illustrated?
A. prophase I
B. interphase
C. anaphase I
D. anaphase II
61. What is this process called?
A. fertilization
B. gamete formation
C. inheritance
D. reproduction
62. To which step in this process does the law of
segregation apply?
A. grows into plant
B. gamete formation
C. fertilization
D. seed development
63. Under what circumstances will a recessive
trait be expressed?
A. A recessive allele is passed on by both parents.
B. One parent passes on the recessive allele.
C. The individual is heterozygous for the trait.
D. There is a mutation in the dominant gene.
64. Which of Dr. Garrod’s observations about
alkaptonuria was most critical to his determination that
it is a genetic disorder?
A. It appears at birth and runs in families.
B. It is linked to an enzyme deficiency.
C. It continues throughout a patient’s life, affecting
bones and joints.
D. It is caused by acid excretion and results in black
urine.
65. Which is an example of a polygenic trait?
A. blood type
B. color blindness
C. hemophilia
D. skin color
66. Which is not an allele in the ABO
blood group?
A. IA
B. IO
C. IB
D. i
67. Why are males affected by recessive
sex-linked traits more often than are females?
A. Males have only one X chromosome.
B. Males have two X chromosomes.
C. Males have only one Y chromosome.
D. The traits are located on the Y chromosomes.
68. The experiments of Avery, Hershey
and Chase provided evidence that the
carrier of genetic information is
_______.
A. carbohydrate
B. DNA
C. lipid
D. protein
69. Which shows the basic chain of events
in all organisms for reading and expressing
genes?
A. DNA  RNA  protein
B. RNA  DNA  protein
C. mRNA  rRNA  tRNA
D. RNA processing  transcription  translation
70. In the RNA molecule, uracil replaces _______.
A. adenine
B. cytosine
C. purine
D. thymine
71. Why do eukaryotic cells need a complex control
system to regulate the expression of genes?
A. All of an organism’s cells
transcribe the same genes.
B. Expression of incorrect genes
can lead to mutations.
C. Certain genes are expressed
more frequently than others are.
D. Different genes are expressed
at different times in an
organism’s lifetime.
72. What does this diagram show about
the replication of DNA in eukaryotic
cells?
A. DNA is replicated only at certain
places along the chromosome.
B. DNA replication is both
semicontinuous and conservative.
C. Multiple areas of replication occur
along the chromosome at the
same time.
D. The leading DNA strand is
synthesized discontinuously.
73. What type of mutation results in this
change in the DNA sequence?
TTCAGG
A. deletion
B. frameshift
C. insertion
D. substitution
TTCTGG
74. Name the process that scientists use to
separate DNA fragments according to size.
A. genetic engineering
B. gel electrophoresis
C. cleaving
D. selective breeding
75. Once a tomato grower observes the desired trait
in her tomato plants, she decides to perform a test
cross. What is the purpose for doing the test cross?
A. to determine if the trait is
dominant or recessive
B. to determine the phenotype
of the plants
C. to determine if the plants carry
beneficial recessive alleles
D. to determine if the plants are
homozygous dominant or
heterozygous
76. How do researchers
distinguish between the bacterial
cells that contain the recombinant
DNA and those that do not?
A. They observe the two types of cells
under a microscope.
B. They tag the recombinant DNA with
fluorescent dye.
C. They use an antibiotic to kill the cells
that do not contain recombinant DNA.
D. They use gel electrophoresis to
separate the cells containing
recombinant DNA.
77. What gas do scientists think was absent
from Earth’s early atmosphere?
A. sulfur
B. nitrogen
C. oxygen
D. water vapor
78. According to the endosymbiont theory, what
may have happened to a prokaryotic cell that
entered a host cell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It was digested by the host cell.
It became an organelle in the host cell.
It became a harmful parasite in the host cell.
It was removed from the host cell by exocytosis.
79. Which is not a principle of Darwin’s theory
about the origin of species?
A. Individuals show variations.
B. Variations can be inherited.
C. Organisms have more offspring than
available resources will support.
D. Offspring always inherit the best traits.
80. Identify the term that is used to describe
anatomically similar structures inherited from
a common ancestor.
A. ancestral traits
B. analogous structures
C. homologous structures
D. vestigial structures
81. Within a population of squirrels, those that live higher in the
mountains where it is cooler have long fur. Squirrels that live in
the foothills where it is warmer have short fur. The original
population is believed to have had intermediate fur length. Which
graph represents this type of natural selection?
A.
C.
B.
82. What organisms make up the base of
the food web in aquatic environments?
A. kelp
B. blue-green algae
C. multicellular algae
D. phytoplankton
83. Explain how algal blooms can be
harmful.
Answer: When food supply dwindles,
dinoflagellates die in large numbers.
As dead algae decompose, the
oxygen supply in the water is
depleted, suffocating fish and other
marine organisms. Other fish can
suffocate when their gills fill with
dinoflagellates.
84. What type of stem grows along the soil’s
surface and can produce a new plant?
A. bulb
B. rhizome
C. runner
D. tuber
85. Where in the leaf does most of the
photosynthesis take place?
A
B
C
D
86. What is the term for an environmental
change that influences the activity of an
organism?
A. biotic factor
B. incentive
C. inducement
D. stimulus
87. What is the main cause of rapid
breathing, muscle pain, and muscle
fatigue during intense exercise?
A. ATP
B. CO2
C. iodine
D. lactic acid
88. What is the function of osteoclasts?
A. They break down bone cells.
B. They produce blood cells and platelets.
C. They are responsible for growth and repair
of bones.
D. They form a callus of cartilage at the location
of a break.
89. What type of neuron begins a reflex
arc?
A. interneuron
B. motor neuron
C. sensory neuron
D. transmitter neuron
90. What does the cerebrum regulate?
A. breathing and heart rates
B. complex motor skills
C. sleep, aggression, and fear
D. voluntary body movements
91. What part of the nervous system is usually
under voluntary control?
A. autonomic nervous system
B. somatic nervous system
C. sympathetic nervous system
D. parasympathetic nervous system
92. Name the blood component that is
helpful in clotting.
A. platelets
B. plasma
C. red blood cells
D. white blood cells
93. Which is not one of the defenses against
foreign materials entering the lungs?
A. cilia
B. mucous
C. nose hairs
D. trachea
94. What internal stimulus causes breathing
rate to increase?
A. a high concentration
of O2 in the blood
B. a high concentration
of CO2 in the blood
C. a low concentration
of O2 in the blood
D. a low concentration
of CO2 in the blood
95. What is the immediate result of kidney
failure?
A. Fluid-filled cysts grow in the kidney.
B. The body rejects the kidney.
C. The urinary tract becomes blocked.
D. Waste products build up in the blood.
96. Which two blood vessels
are veins?
A. A and B
B. B and C
C. C and D
D. D and A
97. Why should a girl with type A blood not receive
a transfusion of type AB blood?
A. She has A markers on
her blood cells.
B. She has A and B markers
on her blood cells.
C. She has Anti-A antibodies
in her blood plasma.
D. She has Anti-B antibodies
in her blood plasma.
98. Where is urea filtered out of the blood?
99. Which is an enzyme responsible for
breaking down starches into sugars?
A. amylase
B. appendix
C. peristalsis
D. pepsin
100. Which glands play a role in the “fight or
flight” response?
A. adrenal
B. pituitary
C. parathyroid
D. thyroid
101. In what type of solution is the enzyme
pepsin most active?
A. acidic solution
B. buffered solution
C. gaseous solution
D. concentrated sugar
solution
102. Fats are an important
part of a healthy diet.
A. True
B. False
103. Which organ stores bile and releases it
when needed?
104. How does this structure
aid in the digestive process?
A. It increases
surface area.
B. It mechanically
digests food.
C. It secretes
digestive enzymes.
D. It traps
foreign particles.
105. Why does the body need vitamins?
A. They provide energy.
B. They are used to
build cells.
C. They help enzymes
to function.
D. They recycle nutrient
molecules.
106. Which hormone is more
likely to be secreted by the
pancreas during intense
exercise?
A. glucagon
B. insulin
107. The two meiotic divisions of egg
production yield how many eggs?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. six
108. Which hormone promotes growth by
increasing metabolic rate?
A. calcitronin
B. prolactin
C. testosterone
D. thyroxine
109. Testosterone and progesterone are the
female hormones produced in the ovaries.
A. True
B. False
110. Which is the correct order of development
of the fertilized egg?
A. blastocyst, morula, zygote
B. zygote, morula, blastocyst
C. oocyte, zygote, blastocyst
D. morula, zygote, blastocyst