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EOPA REVIEW
1
BODY STRUCTURE
2
RESPIRATORY
526
EMERGING DISEASES
62
SKELETAL
565
BIOMEDICAL THERAPIES 82
SPECIAL SENSES
606
MEDICAL MATH
103
URINARY
645
CHARTS AND CLOCKS
124
LEGAL
676
CIRCULATORY
165
ETHICS
741
DIGESTIVE
207
SAFETY
792
ENDOCRINE
248
TEAMWORK
896
INTEGUMENTARY
288
HEALTH MAINTENANCE
847
LYMPH
329
TECHNICAL SKILLS
998
ENDOCRINE
350
INFORMATION TECH.
1074
MUSCLE
392
NERVOUS
433
REPRODUCTIVE
475
Body Organization
Which of the following is a type of muscle
tissue?
Smooth
Squamous
Osseous
Carotid
2
Body Organization
Which of the following is a type of muscle tissue?
Smooth
Squamous
Osseous
Carotid
3
Body Organization
An excess of tissue fluid results in edema. Not
enough tissue fluid causes:
Fibrillation.
Dehydration.
Irritability.
Swelling
4
Body Organization
An excess of tissue fluid results in edema. Not
enough tissue fluid causes:
Fibrillation.
Dehydration.
Irritability.
Swelling.
5
Body Organization
Where would you find epithelial tissue?
Inside long bones
Inside the brain
Lining the inside of the nose
In the walls of the large intestine
6
Body Organization
Where would you find epithelial tissue?
Inside long bones
Inside the brain
Lining the inside of the nose
In the walls of the large intestine
7
Body Organization
What type of tissue transmits messages from the
head to the toes?
Connective
Epithelial
Nerve
Muscle
8
9
What type of tissue transmits messages from the
head to the toes?
Connective
Epithelial
Nerve
Muscle
10
What type of tissue is classified as hard or soft?
Epithelial
Muscle
Nervous
Connective
11
What type of tissue is classified as hard or soft?
Epithelial
Muscle
Nervous
Connective
Body Organization
What is the primary function of muscle tissue?
To produce movement
To control and coordinate body activities
Transportation
To produce body secretions
12
Body Organization
What is the primary function of muscle tissue?
To produce movement
To control and coordinate body activities
Transportation
To produce body secretions
13
Body Organization
Blood is classified as what type of tissue?
Epithelial
Connective
Nerve
Muscle
14
Body Organization
Blood is classified as what type of tissue?
Epithelial
Connective
Nerve
Muscle
15
Body Organization
Of the following, which is the MOST complex?
Nucleus
Muscle tissue
Nerve cell
Kidney
16
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
Of the following, which is the MOST complex?
Nucleus
Muscle tissue
Nerve cell
Kidney
17
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
Which organ or structure does NOT belong with
the other three?
Stomach
Heart
Liver
Mouth
18
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
Which organ or structure does NOT belong with
the other three?
Stomach
Heart
Liver
Mouth
19
Body Organization
What is the MOST BASIC building block of the
human organism?
Atom
Cell
Protein
Water
20
Body Organization
What is the MOST BASIC building block of the
human organism?
Atom
Cell
Protein
Water
21
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
If the body were cut in a transverse plane, what
organ would NOT be in the same half as the
other three?
Brain
Bladder
Lungs
Heart
22
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
If the body were cut in a transverse plane, what
organ would NOT be in the same half as the
other three?
Brain
Bladder
Lungs
Heart
23
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
What body part is inferior to the chest?
Head
Neck
Heart
Hips
24
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
What body part is inferior to the chest?
Head
Neck
Heart
Hips
25
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
In veterinary medicine, what structure would be
found in the caudal region of a dog?
Ears
Tail
Mouth
Paws
26
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
In veterinary medicine, what structure would be
found in the caudal region of a dog?
Ears
Tail
Mouth
Paws
27
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
If you divided the body with a midsagittal plane
and added up the number of eyes, arms and
toes on one side, how many would you have?
5
7
9
12
28
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
If you divided the body with a midsagittal plane
and added up the number of eyes, arms and
toes on one side, how many would you have?
5
7
9
12
29
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
What structures are located anterior to the
cranial cavity?
Eyes
Ears
Lungs
Neck muscles
30
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
What structures are located anterior to the
cranial cavity?
Eyes
Ears
Lungs
Neck muscles
31
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
An autopsy photo shows the dorsal side of the
victim. What could you see in the photograph?
Back of the head
Kidneys
Knees
Front of the abdomen
32
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
An autopsy photo shows the dorsal side of the
victim. What could you see in the photograph?
Back of the head
Kidneys
Knees
Front of the abdomen
33
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
What body cavity contains the brain and spinal
cord?
Cranial
Spinal
Dorsal
Ventral
34
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
What body cavity contains the brain and spinal
cord?
Cranial
Spinal
Dorsal
Ventral
35
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
Of the following, what structures are the MOST
medial?
Ears
Hips
Eyes
Lips
36
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
Of the following, what structures are the MOST
medial?
Ears
Hips
Eyes
Lips
37
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
What body parts are distal to the hand?
Fingers
Eyes
Ribs
Lungs
38
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
What body parts are distal to the hand?
Fingers
Eyes
Ribs
Lungs
39
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
If a physician writes that the patient has RUQ
pain, what might be causing it?
Head injury
Arthritis in the hip
Cracked rib
Dislocated shoulder
40
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
If a physician writes that the patient has RUQ
pain, what might be causing it?
Head injury
Arthritis in the hip
Cracked rib
Dislocated shoulder
41
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
What structure is proximal to the thigh?
Ankle
Calf
Knee
Foot
42
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
What structure is proximal to the thigh?
Ankle
Calf
Knee
Foot
43
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
What cavity would a surgeon enter to repair a
heart defect?
Dorsal
Thoracic
Abdominal
Pelvic
44
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
What cavity would a surgeon enter to repair a
heart defect?
Dorsal
Thoracic
Abdominal
Pelvic
45
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
George has a cramp in the posterior part of his
leg. Where is the cramp?
Ankle
Knee
Shin
Calf
46
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
George has a cramp in the posterior part of his
leg. Where is the cramp?
Ankle
Knee
Shin
Calf
47
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
If you are standing straight with your hands at
your sides, where are your arms located in
relation to your body?
Superior
Caudal
Lateral
Ventral
48
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
If you are standing straight with your hands at
your sides, where are your arms located in
relation to your body?
Superior
Caudal
Lateral
Ventral
49
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
If a physician performs a pelvic exam, what
organs can be evaluated?
Respiratory
Reproductive
Esophagus and stomach
Liver and gallbladder
50
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
If a physician performs a pelvic exam, what
organs can be evaluated?
Respiratory
Reproductive
Esophagus and stomach
Liver and gallbladder
51
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
An x-ray is labeled as a ventral view of the
chest. This means the x-ray was taken from the:
Front of the patient.
Back of the patient.
Left side of the patient.
Right side of the patient
52
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
An x-ray is labeled as a ventral view of the
chest. This means the x-ray was taken from the:
Front of the patient.
Back of the patient.
Left side of the patient.
Right side of the patient
53
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
In order to see both eyes, you would need to
be looking at the:
Caudal side of the frontal plane.
Anterior side of the frontal plane.
Inferior side of the transverse plane.
Inferior side of a medial plane
54
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
In order to see both eyes, you would need to
be looking at the:
Caudal side of the frontal plane.
Anterior side of the frontal plane.
Inferior side of the transverse plane.
Inferior side of a medial plane
55
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
What does the abbreviation RLQ represent?
Right lumbar quadrant
Radial lateral quadrant
Right lower quadrant
Radial lumbar quadrant
56
Planes, Directions,
Quadrants, Cavities
What does the abbreviation RLQ represent?
Right lumbar quadrant
Radial lateral quadrant
Right lower quadrant
Radial lumbar quadrant
57
Planes, Directions, Quadrants,
Cavities
Where is the right
lower quadrant?
A
B
C
D
58
Planes, Directions, Quadrants,
Cavities
Where is the right
lower quadrant?
A
B
C
D
59
Planes, Directions, Quadrants,
Cavities
What quadrant is
represented by the
letter D?
RLQ
RUQ
LUQ
LLQ
60
Planes, Directions, Quadrants,
Cavities
What quadrant is
represented by the
letter D?
RLQ
RUQ
LUQ
LLQ
61
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
What medical professional would MOST LIKELY
provide regular care for a patient with autism?
Radiologic technologist
Psychologist
Electroencephalographer
Dialysis technician
62
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
What medical professional would MOST LIKELY
provide regular care for a patient with autism?
Radiologic technologist
Psychologist
Electroencephalographer
Dialysis technician
63
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
What is the earliest age at which parents could
be confident that their child will not develop
autism?
3 months
1 year
4 years
7 years
64
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
What is the earliest age at which parents could
be confident that their child will not develop
autism?
3 months
1 year
4 years
7 years
65
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
How is a diagnosis of Autism made?
Observation of behavior by a professional.
Blood test for specific antigen.
Stool culture.
Analysis of DNA of both the child and mother.
66
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
How is a diagnosis of Autism made?
Observation of behavior by a professional.
Blood test for specific antigen.
Stool culture.
Analysis of DNA of both the child and mother.
67
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
What does the abbreviation MRSA stand for?
Monosodium resistant Staphylococcus aureus
Mefoxin resistant Staphylococcus aureus
Mellaril resistant Staphylococcus aureus
Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus
68
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
What does the abbreviation MRSA stand for?
Monosodium resistant Staphylococcus aureus
Mefoxin resistant Staphylococcus aureus
Mellaril resistant Staphylococcus aureus
Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus
69
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
Where do MOST people who develop MRSA
become infected?
At school
In public restrooms
On cruise ships
In hospitals
70
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
Where do MOST people who develop MRSA
become infected?
At school
In public restrooms
On cruise ships
In hospitals
71
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
Which of the following is a LIKEY cause of PTSD?
Food poisoning
Being bitten by a tick
Lack of oxygen
Living through a plane crash
72
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
Which of the following is a LIKEY cause of PTSD?
Food poisoning
Being bitten by a tick
Lack of oxygen
Living through a plane crash
73
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
Patsy did not refrigerate her leftover
shrimp pasta until five hours after
dinner. She ate her cold leftovers
the next day. The following day she
developed abdominal pain,
vomiting, and diarrhea. What MOST
LIKELY is the cause of her illness?
Seasonal flu
Stress
Salmonella
MRSA
74
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
Patsy did not refrigerate her leftover
shrimp pasta until five hours after
dinner. She ate her cold leftovers
the next day. The following day she
developed abdominal pain,
vomiting, and diarrhea. What MOST
LIKELY is the cause of her illness?
Seasonal flu
Stress
Salmonella
MRSA
75
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
Of the following, which emerging disorder is the
MOST DIFFICULT to prevent?
Steroid use
Seasonal influenza
Salmonella
Autism
76
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
Of the following, which emerging disorder is the
MOST DIFFICULT to prevent?
Steroid use
Seasonal influenza
Salmonella
Autism
77
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
What organism causes seasonal influenza?
Virus
Bacteria
Amoeba
Fungus
78
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
What organism causes seasonal influenza?
Virus
Bacteria
Amoeba
Fungus
79
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
Athletes often take illegal anabolic steroids in
order to increase:
Hand-eye coordination.
Muscle mass.
Endurance.
Blood flow and energy.
80
Emerging Diseases and
Disorders
Athletes often take illegal anabolic steroids in
order to increase:
Hand-eye coordination.
Muscle mass.
Endurance.
Blood flow and energy.
81
82
Biomedical Therapies
83
Can genetic testing tell for certain that a
person will develop Alzheimer’s disease?
Yes, but not at what age
Yes, if there is a family history of Alzheimer’s
disease
No, because a person with the Alzheimer’s gene
may not develop the disease
No, because genetic tests still produce too many
false positive results
84
Can genetic testing tell for certain that a person
will develop Alzheimer’s disease?
Yes, but not at what age
Yes, if there is a family history of Alzheimer’s disease
No, because a person with the Alzheimer’s gene
may not develop the disease
No, because genetic tests still produce too many
false positive results
85
Genetic testing involves the analysis of a
person’s:
Behavior.
Genes.
Blood cells.
Environment.
86
Genetic testing involves the analysis of a
person’s:
Behavior.
Genes.
Blood cells.
Environment.
87
Gene therapy might be suggested as a last
resort for treating someone with:
Obesity.
Autism.
Cystic fibrosis.
Head trauma.
88
Gene therapy might be suggested as a last
resort for treating someone with:
Obesity.
Autism.
Cystic fibrosis.
Head trauma.
89
What words best describe the current use of
gene therapy?
Fast and reliable
Safe and easy
Risky and economical
Experimental and expensive
90
What words best describe the current use of
gene therapy?
Fast and reliable
Safe and easy
Risky and economical
Experimental and expensive
91
The results of the Human Genome Project can
be described as:
Gene therapy.
Gene mapping.
Gene splicing.
Gene transplantation.
92
The results of the Human Genome Project can
be described as:
Gene therapy.
Gene mapping.
Gene splicing.
Gene transplantation.
93
What country completed the Human Genome
Project?
United States of America
England
Russia
It was an international effort
94
What country completed the Human Genome
Project?
United States of America
England
Russia
It was an international effort
95
What is the goal of therapeutic cloning?
To create a new human being
To change a baby’s DNA
To prevent genetic diseases
To harvest stem cells
96
What is the goal of therapeutic cloning?
To create a new human being
To change a baby’s DNA
To prevent genetic diseases
To harvest stem cells
97
Is a test tube baby the same as a clone?
Yes, always
No, never
It could be
98
Is a test tube baby the same as a clone?
Yes, always
No, never
It could be
99
Where in a healthy adult could you find stem
cells?
Small intestine
Pancreas
Bone marrow
Subcutaneous tissue
100
Where in a healthy adult could you find stem
cells?
Small intestine
Pancreas
Bone marrow
Subcutaneous tissue
101
Why do stem cells have so much potential in
medical research?
They can become specialized cells in the body.
They are immune to becoming cancer cells.
They produce endorphins.
They surround and destroy cancer cells
102
Why do stem cells have so much potential in
medical research?
They can become specialized cells in the body.
They are immune to becoming cancer cells.
They produce endorphins.
They surround and destroy cancer cells
103
Medical
Math
104
George has a cut that is 0.03 meters long. How
long is the cut in centimeters?
0.003 cm
0.3 cm
3.0 cm
30 cm
105
George has a cut that is 0.03 meters long. How
long is the cut in centimeters?
0.003 cm
0.3 cm
3.0 cm
30 cm
106
What object is closest to 10 mm in diameter?
Nickel
Dime
Quarter
Silver dollar
107
What object is closest to 10 mm in diameter?
Nickel
Dime
Quarter
Silver dollar
108
How many kilometers are in 10,000 meters?
1 km
10 km
100 km
1000 km
109
How many kilometers are in 10,000 meters?
1 km
10 km
100 km
1000 km
110
How many milligrams are in 0.05 grams?
50 mg
500 mg
5000 mg
50,000 mg
111
How many milligrams are in 0.05 grams?
50 mg
500 mg
5000 mg
50,000 mg
112
How many grams are in 60 kilograms?
0.06 gm
60 gm
6,000 gm
60,000 gm
113
How many grams are in 60 kilograms?
0.06 gm
60 gm
6,000 gm
60,000 gm
114
How many liters are in 500 milliliters?
0.0005 L
0.05 L
0.5 L
5L
115
How many liters are in 500 milliliters?
0.0005 L
0.05 L
0.5 L
5L
1 oz = 28 g
1 lb = 0.454 kg
1 kg = 2.2 lbs
How many kg are in 12 oz?
0.0336 kg
0.336 kg
33.6 kg
336.kg
116
1 oz = 28 g
1 lb = 0.454 kg
1 kg = 2.2 lbs
How many kg are in 12 oz?
0.0336 kg
0.336 kg
33.6 kg
336.kg
117
118
A 681 g tumor was removed from a woman’s
abdomen. How much did the tumor weigh in
pounds?
1 ½ lbs
24 1/3 lbs
150 lbs
309 lbs
119
A 681 g tumor was removed from a woman’s
abdomen. How much did the tumor weigh in
pounds?
1 ½ lbs
24 1/3 lbs
150 lbs
309 lbs
120
Bobby is eating a well balanced diet and
exercising daily. He expects to lose 8 oz a day.
How long will it take him to lose 10 kg?
10 days
12 days
20 days
44 days
121
Bobby is eating a well balanced diet and
exercising daily. He expects to lose 8 oz a day.
How long will it take him to lose 10 kg?
10 days
12 days
20 days
44 days
122
If a box of cereal is 14.5 oz and there are 120
calories in 30 g of cereal, how many calories
are in the entire box?
406 calories
840 calories
1624 calories
1740 calories
123
If a box of cereal is 14.5 oz and there are 120
calories in 30 g of cereal, how many calories
are in the entire box?
406 calories
840 calories
1624 calories
1740 calories
124
Charts and
Clocks
125
When and how high was the highest
percentage of high school smokers?
26% in 1991
13% in 1996
39% in 1997
23% in 2005
126
When and how high was the highest
percentage of high school smokers?
26% in 1991
13% in 1996
39% in 1997
23% in 2005
127
What group has seen the greatest percentage
decline in cigarette smoking from 1991 to 2005?
Ages 8-11
Junior high school
High school
Adult
128
What group has seen the greatest percentage
decline in cigarette smoking from 1991 to 2005?
Ages 8-11
Junior high school
High school
Adult
129
What percentage of people suffering from
HIV/AIDS were in Africa in 1998?
42%
49%
56%
68%
130
What percentage of people suffering from
HIV/AIDS were in Africa in 1998?
42%
49%
56%
68%
131
How many people in the United States had
HIV/AIDS in 1998?
Fewer than 890,000
890,000
1 million
33.4 million
132
How many people in the United States had
HIV/AIDS in 1998?
Fewer than 890,000
890,000
1 million
33.4 million
133
In was the level of weekly Influenza activity in
Texas?
Sporadic
Local
Regional
Widespread
134
In was the level of weekly Influenza activity in
Texas?
Sporadic
Local
Regional
Widespread
135
How many states show a sporadic incidence of
influenza?
None
Two
Five
Seven
136
How many states show a sporadic incidence of
influenza?
None
Two
Five
Seven
137
Donna is 65 inches tall. How much should she
weigh to have a BMI of 24?
144 pounds
148 pounds
150 pounds
192 pounds
138
Donna is 65 inches tall. How much should she
weigh to have a BMI of 24?
144 pounds
148 pounds
150 pounds
192 pounds
139
Bob is 6 feet tall and weighs 199 pounds. What
is his BMI?
25
27
29
31
140
Bob is 6 feet tall and weighs 199 pounds. What
is his BMI?
25
27
29
31
141
Obesity is defined as a BMI of 30 or higher.
Which of the following individuals is considered
obese?
59 inches and 143 pounds
73 inches and 219 pounds
65 inches and 168 pounds
76 inches and 246 pounds
142
Obesity is defined as a BMI of 30 or higher.
Which of the following individuals is considered
obese?
59 inches and 143 pounds
73 inches and 219 pounds
65 inches and 168 pounds
76 inches and 246 pounds
143
What race has the lowest cancer mortality rate
in the United States?
White
Asian/Pacific Islander
American Indian
Hispanic
144
What race has the lowest cancer mortality rate
in the United States?
White
Asian/Pacific Islander
American Indian
Hispanic
145
What group has the highest cancer mortality
rate in the United States?
Hispanic males
White females
Black females
Black males
146
What group has the highest cancer mortality
rate in the United States?
Hispanic males
White females
Black females
Black males
147
What is the likelihood of a person in the United
States dying of cancer before age 44?
1%
2%
3%
4%
148
What is the likelihood of a person in the United
States dying of cancer before age 44?
1%
2%
3%
4%
149
What is the cancer death rate for Hispanic
women in the United States?
105.2 per 100,000
142 per 100,000
159 per 100,000
159.9 per 100,00
150
What is the cancer death rate for Hispanic
women in the United States?
105.2 per 100,000
142 per 100,000
159 per 100,000
159.9 per 100,00
151
What time is 3:30 PM using the 24-hour clock?
0330
1330
1530
1730
152
What time is 3:30 PM using the 24-hour clock?
0330
1330
1530
1730
153
What time is 0130 using the traditional clock?
3:00 AM
1:30 AM
1:00 AM
10:30 AM
154
What time is 0130 using the traditional clock?
3:00 AM
1:30 AM
1:00 AM
10:30 AM
155
If a cook puts a casserole in the oven at 1200
and it needs to cook for four hours, at what time
will it be ready?
1300
1400
1600
1700
156
If a cook puts a casserole in the oven at 1200
and it needs to cook for four hours, at what time
will it be ready?
1300
1400
1600
1700
157
Yuri needs leave for work at 6:00 AM, and it
takes him one hour to get ready. He should set
his alarm for:
0500.
0530.
0600.
0630.
158
Yuri needs leave for work at 6:00 AM, and it
takes him one hour to get ready. He should set
his alarm for:
0500.
0530.
0600.
0630.
159
Dr. Paschal has scheduled three
operations beginning at 0700. Each
surgery will take two hours, and then
it takes 30 minutes for Dr. Paschal to
travel to his office and another 30
minutes to eat a snack. If everything
runs on time, at what time can Dr.
Paschal see his first office patient?
1200
1300
1400
1500
160
Dr. Paschal has scheduled three
operations beginning at 0700. Each
surgery will take two hours, and then
it takes 30 minutes for Dr. Paschal to
travel to his office and another 30
minutes to eat a snack. If everything
runs on time, at what time can Dr.
Paschal see his first office patient?
1200
1300
1400
1500
161
Margaret works the 0600 – 1800 shift at the
hospital. How long is her shift?
6 hours
8 hours
10 hours
12 hours
162
Margaret works the 0600 – 1800 shift at the
hospital. How long is her shift?
6 hours
8 hours
10 hours
12 hours
163
Of the following, what is the BEST time to give a
patient in the hospital his/her bedtime snack?
1400
1800
2100
2400
164
Of the following, what is the BEST time to give a
patient in the hospital his/her bedtime snack?
1400
1800
2100
2400
165
Circulatory
System
166
The heart is best described as a:
Muscular pump.
Storage chamber.
Message center.
Filtration unit.
167
The heart is best described as a:
Muscular pump.
Storage chamber.
Message center.
Filtration unit.
168
The heart is about the size of a/an:
Egg.
Apple.
Peanut.
Pumpkin.
169
The heart is about the size of a/an:
Egg.
Apple.
Peanut.
Pumpkin.
170
What would happen if a small hole developed
in the septum?
The heart would stop pumping.
Blood would move between the right and left
sides of the heart.
The blood from the pulmonary artery would enter
the aorta.
Blood would not flow into the coronary arteries.
171
What would happen if a small hole developed
in the septum?
The heart would stop pumping.
Blood would move between the right and left
sides of the heart.
The blood from the pulmonary artery would enter
the aorta.
Blood would not flow into the coronary arteries.
172
When blood leaves the left atrium, where does
it go next?
Aorta
Left ventricle
Right atrium
Pulmonary artery
173
When blood leaves the left atrium, where does
it go next?
Aorta
Left ventricle
Right atrium
Pulmonary artery
174
After blood leaves the right atrium, what valve
prevents back flow?
Tricuspid
Mitral
Pulmonary
Aortic
175
After blood leaves the right atrium, what valve
prevents back flow?
Tricuspid
Mitral
Pulmonary
Aortic
176
What follows diastole?
Phagocytosis
Fibrillation
Hyperbole
Systole
177
What follows diastole?
Phagocytosis
Fibrillation
Hyperbole
Systole
178
Where does an electrical impulse go after it
leaves the Bundle of His?
SA node
Aorta
AV node
Purkinje fibers
179
Where does an electrical impulse go after it
leaves the Bundle of His?
SA node
Aorta
AV node
Purkinje fibers
180
What type of blood vessel is the MOST muscular
and elastic?
Artery
Vein
Venule
Capillary
181
What type of blood vessel is the MOST muscular
and elastic?
Artery
Vein
Venule
Capillary
182
In what type of blood vessel does oxygen and
carbon dioxide exchange take place?
Artery
Arteriole
Capillary
Vein
183
In what type of blood vessel does oxygen and
carbon dioxide exchange take place?
Artery
Arteriole
Capillary
Vein
184
If a person becomes dehydrated, what would
there be less of in the blood?
Erythrocytes
Platelets
Leukocytes
Plasma
185
If a person becomes dehydrated, what would
there be less of in the blood?
Erythrocytes
Platelets
Leukocytes
Plasma
186
If a person does not have enough erythrocytes,
he/she would have difficulty:
Fighting infection.
Carrying oxygen.
Clotting the blood.
Transporting antibodies
187
If a person does not have enough erythrocytes,
he/she would have difficulty:
Fighting infection.
Carrying oxygen.
Clotting the blood.
Transporting antibodies
188
Neutrophils and lymphocytes are examples of:
Platelets.
Thrombocytes.
Erythrocytes.
Leukocytes
189
Neutrophils and lymphocytes are examples of:
Platelets.
Thrombocytes.
Erythrocytes.
Leukocytes
190
Anemia could be caused by a lack of:
Monocytes.
Thrombocytes.
Hemoglobin.
Plasma.
191
Anemia could be caused by a lack of:
Monocytes.
Thrombocytes.
Hemoglobin.
Plasma.
192
A hematologist would MOST LIKELY treat
someone with:
Varicose veins.
A myocardial infarction.
Hemophilia.
An arrhythmia.
193
A hematologist would MOST LIKELY treat
someone with:
Varicose veins.
A myocardial infarction.
Hemophilia.
An arrhythmia.
194
Jasmine is diagnosed with an aneurysm. What
is wrong with one of her arteries?
It is missing
It is twisted
There is a weakness in the wall
There is a clot that is stuck
195
Jasmine is diagnosed with an aneurysm. What
is wrong with one of her arteries?
It is missing
It is twisted
There is a weakness in the wall
There is a clot that is stuck
196
Which of the following “cause-and-effect”
statements is true?
Varicose veins cause an aneurysm.
Arteriosclerosis causes hypertension.
Leukemia causes phlebitis.
An arrhythmia causes an aneurysm
197
Which of the following “cause-and-effect”
statements is true?
Varicose veins cause an aneurysm.
Arteriosclerosis causes hypertension.
Leukemia causes phlebitis.
An arrhythmia causes an aneurysm
198
Your friend has pain, edema and redness in the
lower leg. What would cause those symptoms?
Phlebitis
Congestive heart failure
Myocardial infarction
Leukemia
199
Your friend has pain, edema and redness in the
lower leg. What would cause those symptoms?
Phlebitis
Congestive heart failure
Myocardial infarction
Leukemia
200
What circulatory disorder could be diagnosed
with an electrocardiogram?
Anemia
Fibrillation
Hypertension
Embolism
201
What circulatory disorder could be diagnosed
with an electrocardiogram?
Anemia
Fibrillation
Hypertension
Embolism
202
Which of the following disorders could be
treated with chemotherapy, radiation, and/or a
bone marrow transplant?
Myocardial infarction
Hypertension
Atherosclerosis
Leukemia
203
Which of the following disorders could be
treated with chemotherapy, radiation, and/or a
bone marrow transplant?
Myocardial infarction
Hypertension
Atherosclerosis
Leukemia
204
Why is a myocardial infarction life threatening?
Because a damaged heart muscle cannot pump
blood effectively.
Because swollen veins lose elasticity which
decreases blood flow to vital organs.
Because a minor bump or fall could lead to
internal bleeding.
Because it inhibits the exchange of oxygen and
carbon dioxide in body cells.
205
Why is a myocardial infarction life threatening?
Because a damaged heart muscle cannot pump
blood effectively.
Because swollen veins lose elasticity which
decreases blood flow to vital organs.
Because a minor bump or fall could lead to
internal bleeding.
Because it inhibits the exchange of oxygen and
carbon dioxide in body cells.
206
Digestive
System
207
Where does digestion begin?
Stomach
Small intestine
Esophagus
Mouth
208
Where does digestion begin?
Stomach
Small intestine
Esophagus
Mouth
209
What is the small muscular structure that hangs
from the soft palate and can be seen when you
look in someone’s mouth?
Epiglottis
Uvula
Hard palate
Tonsils
210
What is the small muscular structure that hangs
from the soft palate and can be seen when you
look in someone’s mouth?
Epiglottis
Uvula
Hard palate
Tonsils
211
A bolus is made of:
Chewed food and saliva.
Digested food and chyme.
Salivary lipase and ptyalin.
Bile and flatus.
212
A bolus is made of:
Chewed food and saliva.
Digested food and chyme.
Salivary lipase and ptyalin.
Bile and flatus.
213
What would happen to food you swallowed if
your esophagus did not perform peristalsis?
The food would be stuck in your esophagus.
The food would enter your trachea.
You would vomit when the food hit your stomach.
You would choke.
214
What would happen to food you swallowed if
your esophagus did not perform peristalsis?
The food would be stuck in your esophagus.
The food would enter your trachea.
You would vomit when the food hit your stomach.
You would choke.
215
Roberta suffers from car sickness and can only
ride on an empty stomach. If she eats at 8:00
am, what is the soonest she can ride in a car
and be sure her stomach is empty?
9:00 am
10:00 am
12:00 pm
2:00 pm
216
Roberta suffers from car sickness and can only
ride on an empty stomach. If she eats at 8:00
am, what is the soonest she can ride in a car
and be sure her stomach is empty?
9:00 am
10:00 am
12:00 pm
2:00 pm
217
When a person vomits, what is in the chyme
that often causes burning?
Rennin
Rugae
Hydrochloric acid
Chymotrypsin
218
When a person vomits, what is in the chyme
that often causes burning?
Rennin
Rugae
Hydrochloric acid
Chymotrypsin
219
During digestion, food leaves the stomach and
enters the:
Duodenum.
Ileum.
Cecum.
Jejunum
220
During digestion, food leaves the stomach and
enters the:
Duodenum.
Ileum.
Cecum.
Jejunum
221
What part of the large intestine does NOT serve
as a passageway for fecal waste?
Colon
Rectum
Anus
Appendix
222
What part of the large intestine does NOT serve
as a passageway for fecal waste?
Colon
Rectum
Anus
Appendix
223
The liver secretes bile that aids in the digestion
of:
Carbohydrates.
Proteins.
Fats.
Glucose.
224
The liver secretes bile that aids in the digestion
of:
Carbohydrates.
Proteins.
Fats.
Glucose.
225
The pancreas produces digestive enzymes that
empty into the:
Gallbladder.
Stomach.
Duodenum.
Liver.
226
The pancreas produces digestive enzymes that
empty into the:
Gallbladder.
Stomach.
Duodenum.
Liver.
227
Why does alcoholism destroy the liver?
The liver detoxifies alcohol, but is overworked by
alcoholism.
The liver has an allergic-type reaction to alcohol.
Alcohol robs the liver of glycogen, which causes
liver cells to starve.
Alcohol is stored in the liver, causing the liver to
enlarge.
228
Why does alcoholism destroy the liver?
The liver detoxifies alcohol, but is overworked by
alcoholism.
The liver has an allergic-type reaction to alcohol.
Alcohol robs the liver of glycogen, which causes
liver cells to starve.
Alcohol is stored in the liver, causing the liver to
enlarge.
229
Which of the following disorders of the digestive
system is the MOST life threatening?
Cirrhosis
Constipation
Heartburn
Hemorrhoids
230
Which of the following disorders of the digestive
system is the MOST life threatening?
Cirrhosis
Constipation
Heartburn
Hemorrhoids
231
What disorder is often treated by the surgical
removal of the gallbladder?
Hepatitis
Cholecystitis
Diverticulitis
Peritonitis
232
What disorder is often treated by the surgical
removal of the gallbladder?
Hepatitis
Cholecystitis
Diverticulitis
Peritonitis
233
Because laxative use can be habit forming,
what is the BEST way to treat constipation?
Vitamin supplements, diuretics and rest
Antibiotics, stool softeners and sitz baths
High fiber diet, increased fluid intake, and
exercise
High protein diet, small meals, and lithotripsy
234
Because laxative use can be habit forming,
what is the BEST way to treat constipation?
Vitamin supplements, diuretics and rest
Antibiotics, stool softeners and sitz baths
High fiber diet, increased fluid intake, and
exercise
High protein diet, small meals, and lithotripsy
235
Diverticulitis is a disorder of the:
Liver.
Pancreas.
Small intestine.
Large intestine.
236
Diverticulitis is a disorder of the:
Liver.
Pancreas.
Small intestine.
Large intestine.
237
The H. pylori bacterium burrows into the
stomach membranes and can cause a/an:
Ulcer.
Appendicitis.
Hernia.
Hemorrhoid.
238
The H. pylori bacterium burrows into the
stomach membranes and can cause a/an:
Ulcer.
Appendicitis.
Hernia.
Hemorrhoid.
239
It is recommended that health care workers
receive a vaccine to prevent:
Hepatitis A.
Hepatitis B.
Hepatitis C.
Hepatitis D.
240
It is recommended that health care workers
receive a vaccine to prevent:
Hepatitis A.
Hepatitis B.
Hepatitis C.
Hepatitis D.
241
Which of the following disorders can you
actually see?
Cirrhosis
Hepatitis
Inguinal hernia
Ulcerative colitis
242
Which of the following disorders can you
actually see?
Cirrhosis
Hepatitis
Inguinal hernia
Ulcerative colitis
243
What is the serious complication of a ruptured
appendix?
Ulcer
Peritonitis
Hernia
Diverticulitis
244
What is the serious complication of a ruptured
appendix?
Ulcer
Peritonitis
Hernia
Diverticulitis
245
What disorder could be found during a
colonoscopy?
Peritonitis
Halitosis
Cancer
Hepatitis
246
What disorder could be found during a
colonoscopy?
Peritonitis
Halitosis
Cancer
Hepatitis
247
Endocrine
System
248
Which endocrine gland is also an exocrine
gland?
Pituitary
Thymus
Pancreas
Ovary
249
Which endocrine gland is also an exocrine
gland?
Pituitary
Thymus
Pancreas
Ovary
250
The parathyroid glands are located nearest
what structure?
Larynx
Pinna
Liver
Kidneys
251
The parathyroid glands are located nearest
what structure?
Larynx
Pinna
Liver
Kidneys
252
What best describes the composition of a
hormone?
A complex protein
A carbohydrate
A chemical substance
A cell with a nucleus
253
What best describes the composition of a
hormone?
A complex protein
A carbohydrate
A chemical substance
A cell with a nucleus
254
Why is the pituitary the “master gland”?
Its hormones affect other glands.
Its hormones can replicate the actions of other
hormones.
All hormones start as immature pituitary
hormones.
Its hormones control reproduction.
255
Why is the pituitary the “master gland”?
Its hormones affect other glands.
Its hormones can replicate the actions of other
hormones.
All hormones start as immature pituitary
hormones.
Its hormones control reproduction.
256
If your body produced too much thyrotropin,
you would have an:
Overactive thyroid gland.
Overactive thymus.
Underactive thyroid gland.
Underactive thymus.
257
If your body produced too much thyrotropin,
you would have an:
Overactive thyroid gland.
Overactive thymus.
Underactive thyroid gland.
Underactive thymus.
258
What diagnostic procedure might reveal a
pituitary tumor?
Skull x-ray
Bronchoscopy
Brain scan
Chest x-ray
259
What diagnostic procedure might reveal a
pituitary tumor?
Skull x-ray
Bronchoscopy
Brain scan
Chest x-ray
260
A teenage athlete who wants to grow bigger
and taller might be foolish enough to take what
pituitary hormone?
ACTH
FSH
Somatotropin
Prolactin
261
A teenage athlete who wants to grow bigger
and taller might be foolish enough to take what
pituitary hormone?
ACTH
FSH
Somatotropin
Prolactin
262
Lara is frightened and can feel her heart start to
pound. What hormone is causing her reaction?
Epinephrine
Progesterone
Thyrotropin
Glucagon
263
Lara is frightened and can feel her heart start to
pound. What hormone is causing her reaction?
Epinephrine
Progesterone
Thyrotropin
Glucagon
264
Which of the following is classified as an
endocrine hormone?
Glycogen
Insulin
Surfactant
Melanin
265
Which of the following is classified as an
endocrine hormone?
Glycogen
Insulin
Surfactant
Melanin
266
When doctors wish to induce labor, a pregnant
woman is given pitocin, a synthetic form of
what pituitary hormone?
Vasopressin
Estrogen
Progesterone
Oxytocin
267
When doctors wish to induce labor, a pregnant
woman is given pitocin, a synthetic form of
what pituitary hormone?
Vasopressin
Estrogen
Progesterone
Oxytocin
268
Which of the following glands produces
estrogen?
Pineal
Pituitary
Ovary
Adrenal
269
Which of the following glands produces
estrogen?
Pineal
Pituitary
Ovary
Adrenal
270
What hormones stimulate body hair, facial hair,
large muscles and a deep voice?
Androgens
Estrogens
ADH and TSH
Aldosterone and cortisone
271
What hormones stimulate body hair, facial hair,
large muscles and a deep voice?
Androgens
Estrogens
ADH and TSH
Aldosterone and cortisone
272
Acromegaly is caused by the oversecretion of
somatotropin in adults, causing:
Enlarged bones in the hands, face and feet.
Extreme tallness and retarded mental
development.
Polyuria, polydipsia, and dehydration.
A small body size and short extremities
273
Acromegaly is caused by the oversecretion of
somatotropin in adults, causing:
Enlarged bones in the hands, face and feet.
Extreme tallness and retarded mental
development.
Polyuria, polydipsia, and dehydration.
A small body size and short extremities
274
Robbie is 24 years-old, four feet tall, has short
arms, and normal mental development. He
has:
Diabetes insipidus.
Acromegaly.
Dwarfism.
Hypothyroidism
275
Robbie is 24 years-old, four feet tall, has short
arms, and normal mental development. He
has:
Diabetes insipidus.
Acromegaly.
Dwarfism.
Hypothyroidism
276
Karla has an enlarged thyroid gland. The
enlargement is called a/an:
Goiter.
Adenoma.
Fibroid.
Lipoma.
277
Karla has an enlarged thyroid gland. The
enlargement is called a/an:
Goiter.
Adenoma.
Fibroid.
Lipoma.
278
What symptoms would be exhibited by
someone with hyperthyroidism?
Weakness, constipation and dry skin
Lethargy, weight loss and moon face
Hyperglycemia, polyuria and polyphagia
Extreme nervousness, irritability and rapid pulse
279
What symptoms would be exhibited by
someone with hyperthyroidism?
Weakness, constipation and dry skin
Lethargy, weight loss and moon face
Hyperglycemia, polyuria and polyphagia
Extreme nervousness, irritability and rapid pulse
280
Who would have the greatest likelihood of
developing Type II diabetes mellitus?
Thin child
Obese child
Thin adult
Obese adult
281
Who would have the greatest likelihood of
developing Type II diabetes mellitus?
Thin child
Obese child
Thin adult
Obese adult
282
Cushing’s syndrome is a disorder of the:
Adrenal gland.
Thyroid gland.
Pituitary gland.
Pancreas.
283
Cushing’s syndrome is a disorder of the:
Adrenal gland.
Thyroid gland.
Pituitary gland.
Pancreas.
284
What endocrine disorder can occur in countries
that do not have iodized salt?
Addison’s disease
Cushing’s syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Dwarfism
285
What endocrine disorder can occur in countries
that do not have iodized salt?
Addison’s disease
Cushing’s syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Dwarfism
286
What disorder might be treated with diet,
exercise, and oral hypoglycemic drugs?
Goiter
Hyperthyroidism
Diabetes mellitus
Acromegaly
287
What disorder might be treated with diet,
exercise, and oral hypoglycemic drugs?
Goiter
Hyperthyroidism
Diabetes mellitus
Acromegaly
288
Integumentary
289
A lack of oxygen supply to the skin can cause
the skin to become:
Cyanotic.
Jaundiced.
White.
Red.
290
A lack of oxygen supply to the skin can cause
the skin to become:
Cyanotic.
Jaundiced.
White.
Red.
291
What medical treatment is effective because of
the absorption function of the skin?
Defibrillation
Massage
Heating pad
Nicotine patch
292
What medical treatment is effective because of
the absorption function of the skin?
Defibrillation
Massage
Heating pad
Nicotine patch
293
The excretory function of the skin allows the
body to eliminate excess:
Fat and sugar.
Water and heat.
Vitamin C.
Minerals.
294
The excretory function of the skin allows the body
to eliminate excess:
Fat and sugar.
Water and heat.
Vitamin C.
Minerals.
295
Spending short periods of time in the morning
sun can be beneficial. How?
Toughens the skin to improve its protective
function.
Improves circulation to the skin, improving
health.
Improves the skin’s elasticity, preventing wrinkles.
Helps in the production of Vitamin D.
skin
296
Spending short periods of time in the morning
sun can be beneficial. How?
Toughens the skin to improve its protective
function.
Improves circulation to the skin, improving skin
health.
Improves the skin’s elasticity, preventing wrinkles.
Helps in the production of Vitamin D.
297
The presence of cellulite can be attributed to
what layer of the skin?
Epidermis
Dermis
Corium
Subcutaneous
298
The presence of cellulite can be attributed to
what layer of the skin?
Epidermis
Dermis
Corium
Subcutaneous
299
When compared to someone with very light
skin, a person with dark skin has more:
Melanin.
Melanocytes.
Vitamin D.
Vitamin C.
300
When compared to someone with very light
skin, a person with dark skin has more:
Melanin.
Melanocytes.
Vitamin D.
Vitamin C.
301
What causes the pinkish tint in an albino’s skin?
Melanin
Carotene
Blood vessels
Jaundice
302
What causes the pinkish tint in an albino’s skin?
Melanin
Carotene
Blood vessels
Jaundice
303
What layer of the skin contains blood vessels,
nerves and hair follicles?
Dermis
Epidermis
Hypodermis
Subcutaneous
304
What layer of the skin contains blood vessels,
nerves and hair follicles?
Dermis
Epidermis
Hypodermis
Subcutaneous
305
Margie has always had white spots on her arm.
They are MOST LIKELY caused by
Albino disorder.
Hives.
Calcium deficiency.
A lack of melanin.
306
Margie has always had white spots on her arm.
They are MOST LIKELY caused by
Albino disorder.
Hives.
Calcium deficiency.
A lack of melanin.
307
Which of the following is a permanent disorder
of the integumentary system?
Urticaria
Alopecia
Vesicle
Athlete’s foot
308
Which of the following is a permanent disorder
of the integumentary system?
Urticaria
Alopecia
Vesicle
Athlete’s foot
309
When you look at the skin, what layer can you
see?
Epidermis
Dermis
Corium
Subcutaneous tissue
310
When you look at the skin, what layer can you
see?
Epidermis
Dermis
Corium
Subcutaneous tissue
311
A new father describes his baby as looking like
a “pumpkin.” The baby is MOST LIKELY:
Cyanotic.
Jaundiced.
Flushed.
An albino.
312
A new father describes his baby as looking like a
“pumpkin.” The baby is MOST LIKELY:
Cyanotic.
Jaundiced.
Flushed.
An albino
313
You might expect a person’s skin to be
jaundiced if he/she has:
Melanoma.
Hepatitis.
Ringworm.
Scabies.
314
You might expect a person’s skin to be jaundiced
if he/she has:
Melanoma.
Hepatitis.
Ringworm.
Scabies
315
Basal cell and squamous cell are types of:
Pustules.
Allergic skin disorders.
Skin cancer.
Nodules.
316
Basal cell and squamous cell are types of:
Pustules.
Allergic skin disorders.
Skin cancer.
Nodules.
317
Conrad has a crust on his knee. What did
Conrad do two days ago?
Was hit in the knee by a snowball.
Fell and skinned his knee.
Stayed out in the sun too long.
Wore a friend’s gym shorts.
318
Conrad has a crust on his knee. What did Conrad
do two days ago?
Was hit in the knee by a snowball.
Fell and skinned his knee.
Stayed out in the sun too long.
Wore a friend’s gym shorts
319
Which of the following skin diseases is
contagious?
Eczema
Dermatitis
Athlete’s foot
Psoriasis
320
Which of the following skin diseases is
contagious?
Eczema
Dermatitis
Athlete’s foot
Psoriasis
321
Your friend has developed a patch of red skin
that is covered by silver scales. What is it?
Psoriasis
Urticaria
Alopecia
Dermatitis
322
Your friend has developed a patch of red skin
that is covered by silver scales. What is it?
Psoriasis
Urticaria
Alopecia
Dermatitis
323
What skin disorder is often life threatening?
Athlete’s foot
Eczema
Verrucae
Melanoma
324
What skin disorder is often life threatening?
Athlete’s foot
Eczema
Verrucae
Melanoma
325
What skin disorder can be treated with
antibiotics?
Acne vulgaris
Athlete’s foot
Basal cell carcinoma
Scabies
326
What skin disorder can be treated with
antibiotics?
Acne vulgaris
Athlete’s foot
Basal cell carcinoma
Scabies
327
Greta has macules on her face. The more
common term is:
Chickenpox.
Freckles.
Hives.
Scabs.
328
Greta has macules on her face. The more
common term is:
Chickenpox.
Freckles.
Hives.
Scabs.
329
Lymphatic
System
330
What cells are a normal component of both
lymph AND blood?
Erythrocytes
Lymphocytes
Platelets
Thrombocytes
331
What cells are a normal component of both
lymph AND blood?
Erythrocytes
Lymphocytes
Platelets
Thrombocytes
332
Where would you find lymph vessels?
In tissues that do not have blood vessels
In the four chambers of the heart
Throughout the body
Only in organs of the digestive
333
Where would you find lymph vessels?
In tissues that do not have blood vessels
In the four chambers of the heart
Throughout the body
Only in organs of the digestive
334
What causes lymph to flow through lymph
vessels?
Peristalsis
The heart
Contractions of skeletal muscles against lymph
vessels
Wavelike contractions of the muscular lining of
lymph vessels
335
What causes lymph to flow through lymph
vessels?
Peristalsis
The heart
Contractions of skeletal muscles against lymph
vessels
Wavelike contractions of the muscular lining of
lymph vessels
336
Where are the lingual tonsils located?
Tongue
Nose
Lips
On the voice box
337
Where are the lingual tonsils located?
Tongue
Nose
Lips
On the voice box
338
A lymph node has two important functions.
What are they?
Lymphocyte production and pumping lymph
fluid.
Transportation of fats and lymph fluid.
Lymphocyte production and lymph filtration.
Pumping lymph fluid and transporting fats
339
A lymph node has two important functions.
What are they?
Lymphocyte production and pumping lymph
fluid.
Transportation of fats and lymph fluid.
Lymphocyte production and lymph filtration.
Pumping lymph fluid and transporting fats
340
What organ recycles red blood cells?
Lymph node
Spleen
Thymus
Lingual tonsil
341
What organ recycles red blood cells?
Lymph node
Spleen
Thymus
Lingual tonsil
342
If a child does not have a functioning thymus,
he/she might have difficulty:
Fighting infection.
Breathing.
Swallowing.
Removing toxic waste from the body.
343
If a child does not have a functioning thymus,
he/she might have difficulty:
Fighting infection.
Breathing.
Swallowing.
Removing toxic waste from the body.
344
What disorder of the lymph system is classified
as a malignancy?
Adenitis
Hodgkin’s disease
Splenomegaly
Tonsillitis
345
What disorder of the lymph system is classified
as a malignancy?
Adenitis
Hodgkin’s disease
Splenomegaly
Tonsillitis
346
Juan is a firefighter who is diagnosed
with splenomegaly. Why would his
doctor tell Juan he cannot go to
work for a month?
He is most likely contagious.
His throat could swell shut and block his
airway.
If bumped in the abdomen, his spleen
could rupture.
He cannot be exposed to others
because he cannot fight infection
347
Juan is a firefighter who is diagnosed
with splenomegaly. Why would his
doctor tell Juan he cannot go to
work for a month?
He is most likely contagious.
His throat could swell shut and block his
airway.
If bumped in the abdomen, his spleen
could rupture.
He cannot be exposed to others
because he cannot fight infection
348
What is the usual treatment for occasional
bouts of tonsillitis?
Tonsillectomy
Splenectomy
Antibiotics and warm throat irrigations
Narcotic pain medication and steroids
349
What is the usual treatment for occasional
bouts of tonsillitis?
Tonsillectomy
Splenectomy
Antibiotics and warm throat irrigations
Narcotic pain medication and steroids
350
Endocrine
System
351
Which endocrine gland is also an exocrine
gland?
Pituitary
Thymus
Pancreas
Ovary
352
Which endocrine gland is also an exocrine
gland?
Pituitary
Thymus
Pancreas
Ovary
353
The parathyroid glands are located nearest
what structure?
Larynx
Pinna
Liver
Kidneys
354
The parathyroid glands are located nearest
what structure?
Larynx
Pinna
Liver
Kidneys
355
What best describes the composition of a
hormone?
A complex protein
A carbohydrate
A chemical substance
A cell with a nucleus
356
What best describes the composition of a
hormone?
A complex protein
A carbohydrate
A chemical substance
A cell with a nucleus
357
Why is the pituitary the “master gland”?
Its hormones affect other glands.
Its hormones can replicate the actions of other
hormones.
All hormones start as immature pituitary
hormones.
Its hormones control reproduction.
358
Why is the pituitary the “master gland”?
Its hormones affect other glands.
Its hormones can replicate the actions of other
hormones.
All hormones start as immature pituitary
hormones.
Its hormones control reproduction.
359
If your body produced too much thyrotropin,
you would have an:
Overactive thyroid gland.
Overactive thymus.
Underactive thyroid gland.
Underactive thymus.
360
If your body produced too much thyrotropin,
you would have an:
Overactive thyroid gland.
Overactive thymus.
Underactive thyroid gland.
Underactive thymus.
361
What diagnostic procedure might reveal a
pituitary tumor?
Skull x-ray
Bronchoscopy
Brain scan
Chest x-ray
362
What diagnostic procedure might reveal a
pituitary tumor?
Skull x-ray
Bronchoscopy
Brain scan
Chest x-ray
363
A teenage athlete who wants to grow bigger
and taller might be foolish enough to take what
pituitary hormone?
ACTH
FSH
Somatotropin
Prolactin
364
A teenage athlete who wants to grow bigger
and taller might be foolish enough to take what
pituitary hormone?
ACTH
FSH
Somatotropin
Prolactin
365
Lara is frightened and can feel her heart start to
pound. What hormone is causing her reaction?
Epinephrine
Progesterone
Thyrotropin
Glucagon
366
Lara is frightened and can feel her heart start to
pound. What hormone is causing her reaction?
Epinephrine
Progesterone
Thyrotropin
Glucagon
367
Which of the following is classified as an
endocrine hormone?
Glycogen
Insulin
Surfactant
Melanin
368
Which of the following is classified as an
endocrine hormone?
Glycogen
Insulin
Surfactant
Melanin
369
When doctors wish to induce labor, a pregnant
woman is given pitocin, a synthetic form of
what pituitary hormone?
Vasopressin
Estrogen
Progesterone
Oxytocin
370
When doctors wish to induce labor, a pregnant
woman is given pitocin, a synthetic form of
what pituitary hormone?
Vasopressin
Estrogen
Progesterone
Oxytocin
371
Which of the following glands produces
estrogen?
Pineal
Pituitary
Ovary
Adrenal
372
Which of the following glands produces
estrogen?
Pineal
Pituitary
Ovary
Adrenal
373
What hormones stimulate body hair, facial hair,
large muscles and a deep voice?
Androgens
Estrogens
ADH and TSH
Aldosterone and cortisone
374
What hormones stimulate body hair, facial hair,
large muscles and a deep voice?
Androgens
Estrogens
ADH and TSH
Aldosterone and cortisone
375
Acromegaly is caused by the oversecretion of
somatotropin in adults, causing:
Enlarged bones in the hands, face and feet.
Extreme tallness and retarded mental
development.
Polyuria, polydipsia, and dehydration.
A small body size and short extremities.
376
Acromegaly is caused by the oversecretion of
somatotropin in adults, causing:
Enlarged bones in the hands, face and feet.
Extreme tallness and retarded mental
development.
Polyuria, polydipsia, and dehydration.
A small body size and short extremities.
377
Robbie is 24 years-old, four feet tall, has short
arms, and normal mental development. He
has:
Diabetes insipidus.
Acromegaly.
Dwarfism.
Hypothyroidism.
378
Robbie is 24 years-old, four feet tall, has short
arms, and normal mental development. He
has:
Diabetes insipidus.
Acromegaly.
Dwarfism.
Hypothyroidism.
379
Karla has an enlarged thyroid gland. The
enlargement is called a/an:
Goiter.
Adenoma.
Fibroid.
Lipoma.
380
Karla has an enlarged thyroid gland. The
enlargement is called a/an:
Goiter.
Adenoma.
Fibroid.
Lipoma.
381
What symptoms would be exhibited by
someone with hyperthyroidism?
Weakness, constipation and dry skin
Lethargy, weight loss and moon face
Hyperglycemia, polyuria and polyphagia
Extreme nervousness, irritability and rapid pulse
382
What symptoms would be exhibited by
someone with hyperthyroidism?
Weakness, constipation and dry skin
Lethargy, weight loss and moon face
Hyperglycemia, polyuria and polyphagia
Extreme nervousness, irritability and rapid pulse
383
Who would have the greatest likelihood of
developing Type II diabetes mellitus?
Thin child
Obese child
Thin adult
Obese adult
384
Who would have the greatest likelihood of
developing Type II diabetes mellitus?
Thin child
Obese child
Thin adult
Obese adult
385
Cushing’s syndrome is a disorder of the:
Adrenal gland.
Thyroid gland.
Pituitary gland.
Pancreas.
386
Cushing’s syndrome is a disorder of the:
Adrenal gland.
Thyroid gland.
Pituitary gland.
Pancreas.
387
What endocrine disorder can occur in countries
that do not have iodized salt?
Addison’s disease
Cushing’s syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Dwarfism
388
What endocrine disorder can occur in countries
that do not have iodized salt?
Addison’s disease
Cushing’s syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Dwarfism
389
What disorder might be treated with diet,
exercise, and oral hypoglycemic drugs?
Goiter
Hyperthyroidism
Diabetes mellitus
Acromegaly
390
What disorder might be treated with diet,
exercise, and oral hypoglycemic drugs?
Goiter
Hyperthyroidism
Diabetes mellitus
Acromegaly
391
Muscle System
392
One of the characteristics of muscles is
extensibility. This allows muscles to:
React to an impulse.
Contract.
Stretch.
Consume oxygen.
393
One of the characteristics of muscles is
extensibility. This allows muscles to:
React to an impulse.
Contract.
Stretch.
Consume oxygen.
394
Which of the following is one of the properties
of muscles?
Excitability
Portability
Stability
Feasibility
395
Which of the following is one of the properties
of muscles?
Excitability
Portability
Stability
Feasibility
396
The walls of the heart are made of:
Cardiac muscle.
Coronary muscle.
Striated muscle.
Voluntary muscle
397
The walls of the heart are made of:
Cardiac muscle.
Coronary muscle.
Striated muscle.
Voluntary muscle
398
Where would you find a voluntary muscle?
In blood vessel walls
Attached to the femur
Inside the heart
Lining the stomach
399
Where would you find a voluntary muscle?
In blood vessel walls
Attached to the femur
Inside the heart
Lining the stomach
400
After you swallow food, what kind of muscle
moves the food toward your stomach?
Cardiac
Skeletal
Voluntary
Smooth
401
After you swallow food, what kind of muscle
moves the food toward your stomach?
Cardiac
Skeletal
Voluntary
Smooth
402
The tough, sheetlike membrane that covers and
protects muscle is:
Fascia.
A ligament.
A tendon.
Periostum.
403
The tough, sheetlike membrane that covers and
protects muscle is:
Fascia.
A ligament.
A tendon.
Periostum.
404
What muscle movement occurs when you
move your hand from an open palm to a fist?
Adduction
Abduction
Flexion
Extension
405
What muscle movement occurs when you
move your hand from an open palm to a fist?
Adduction
Abduction
Flexion
Extension
406
When a muscle attaches to a bone, the end
that does not move is the:
Tendon.
Root.
Origin.
Insertion
407
When a muscle attaches to a bone, the end
that does not move is the:
Tendon.
Root.
Origin.
Insertion
408
Of the following, what muscle is superior to the
other three?
Intercostals
Gastrocnemius
Sternocleidomastoid
Trapezius
409
Of the following, what muscle is superior to the
other three?
Intercostals
Gastrocnemius
Sternocleidomastoid
Trapezius
410
Of the following, what muscle would do the
most work if you ran five miles?
Sternocleidomastoid
Quadriceps femoris
Biceps
Pectoralis major
411
Of the following, what muscle would do the
most work if you ran five miles?
Sternocleidomastoid
Quadriceps femoris
Biceps
Pectoralis major
412
What muscle is located above the waist?
Deltoid
Tibialis anterior
Gastrocnemius
Gluteus maximus
413
What muscle is located above the waist?
Deltoid
Tibialis anterior
Gastrocnemius
Gluteus maximus
414
Karina’s leg was in a cast for ten weeks. You
would expect her leg muscles to experience
some degree of:
Atrophy.
Hypertrophy.
Circumduction.
Rotation.
415
Karina’s leg was in a cast for ten weeks. You
would expect her leg muscles to experience
some degree of:
Atrophy.
Hypertrophy.
Circumduction.
Rotation.
416
What would cause a muscle contracture?
Twisting
Pulling
Lack of use
Overuse
417
What would cause a muscle contracture?
Twisting
Pulling
Lack of use
Overuse
418
What is the correct spelling for the muscles
located between the ribs?
Intracostals
Intracoastals
Intercostals
Intercoastals
419
What is the correct spelling for the muscles
located between the ribs?
Intracostals
Intracoastals
Intercostals
Intercoastals
420
Where is the latissimus dorsi located?
Shoulder
Neck
Back
Leg
421
Where is the latissimus dorsi located?
Shoulder
Neck
Back
Leg
422
What disabling muscle disorder usually affects
children?
Fibromyalgia
Muscular dystrophy
Myasthenia gravis
Strain
423
What disabling muscle disorder usually affects
children?
Fibromyalgia
Muscular dystrophy
Myasthenia gravis
Strain
424
What is the recommended treatment for a
muscle spasm in the calf?
Alternating hot and cold applications
Physical therapy
Stretch the muscle
Pain medication
425
What is the recommended treatment for a
muscle spasm in the calf?
Alternating hot and cold applications
Physical therapy
Stretch the muscle
Pain medication
426
What muscle is located in the calf?
Gastrocnemius
Triceps
Trapezius
Gluteus maximus
427
What muscle is located in the calf?
Gastrocnemius
Triceps
Trapezius
Gluteus maximus
428
Tetanus is caused by:
Muscle strain.
A missing gene.
An autoimmune response.
A bacteria.
429
Tetanus is caused by:
Muscle strain.
A missing gene.
An autoimmune response.
A bacteria.
430
What muscle injury is often caused by
overstretching a muscle?
Fibromyalgia
Strain
Dislocation
Atrophy
431
What muscle injury is often caused by
overstretching a muscle?
Fibromyalgia
Strain
Dislocation
Atrophy
432
Nervous
System
433
Where on the neuron would you find a myelin
sheath?
Dendrite
Nucleus
Axon
Terminal branches
434
Where on the neuron would you find a myelin
sheath?
Dendrite
Nucleus
Axon
Terminal branches
435
In what order does an impulse travel through
parts of a neuron?
Axon synapse dendrite cell body
Dendrite axon cell body synapse
Cell body dendrite axon synapse
Synapse cell body dendrite axon
436
In what order does an impulse travel through
parts of a neuron?
Axon synapse dendrite cell body
Dendrite axon cell body synapse
Cell body dendrite axon synapse
Synapse cell body dendrite axon
437
If a neuron were to lose its myelin sheath, what
MOST LIKELY would happen?
The person would have seizures.
There would be no blood supply to the neuron.
The nerve impulse would not be able to cross the
synapse.
The nerve impulse would slow down across the
axon.
438
If a neuron were to lose its myelin sheath, what
MOST LIKELY would happen?
The person would have seizures.
There would be no blood supply to the neuron.
The nerve impulse would not be able to cross the
synapse.
The nerve impulse would slow down across the
axon.
439
What is the MAIN function of a nerve?
To produce neurons
To carry messages
Sensation
Protection
440
What is the MAIN function of a nerve?
To produce neurons
To carry messages
Sensation
Protection
441
The peripheral nervous system contains:
The cranial nerves.
The brain.
The spinal cord.
Meninges.
442
The peripheral nervous system contains:
The cranial nerves.
The brain.
The spinal cord.
Meninges.
443
A man was hit in the head and now has
difficulty walking and maintaining his balance.
What part of the brain MOST LIKELY was
affected?
Cerebellum
Cerebrum
Midbrain
Pons
444
A man was hit in the head and now has
difficulty walking and maintaining his balance.
What part of the brain MOST LIKELY was
affected?
Cerebellum
Cerebrum
Midbrain
Pons
445
The frontal and parietal lobes can be found in
the:
Cerebellum.
Cerebrum.
Midbrain.
Pons.
446
The frontal and parietal lobes can be found in
the:
Cerebellum.
Cerebrum.
Midbrain.
Pons.
447
What part of the brain connects with the spinal
cord?
Cerebrum
Cerebellum
Pituitary gland
Medulla oblongata
448
What part of the brain connects with the spinal
cord?
Cerebrum
Cerebellum
Pituitary gland
Medulla oblongata
449
What part of the brain is MOST like a blanket?
Cerebrum
Ventricles
Meninges
Pons
450
What part of the brain is MOST like a blanket?
Cerebrum
Ventricles
Meninges
Pons
451
If a needle were inserted into a ventricle in the
brain, what would MOST LIKELY be withdrawn?
Blood
Cerebrospinal fluid
Air
Nerve tissue
452
If a needle were inserted into a ventricle in the
brain, what would MOST LIKELY be withdrawn?
Blood
Cerebrospinal fluid
Air
Nerve tissue
453
Where would you find the dura mater?
Between the skull and arachnoid
Directly above the lateral ventricle
Inside the pons and midbrain
Surrounding the pituitary gland
454
Where would you find the dura mater?
Between the skull and arachnoid
Directly above the lateral ventricle
Inside the pons and midbrain
Surrounding the pituitary gland
455
The autonomic nervous system prepares the
body for the “fight or flight response” by:
Heightening the senses.
Increasing blood supply to the kidneys.
Decreasing the pain sensation.
Increasing heart rate and blood pressure.
456
The autonomic nervous system prepares the
body for the “fight or flight response” by:
Heightening the senses.
Increasing blood supply to the kidneys.
Decreasing the pain sensation.
Increasing heart rate and blood pressure.
457
What body function is NOT affected when a
person has advanced amytrophic lateral
sclerosis?
Speaking
Walking
Thinking
Eating
458
What body function is NOT affected when a
person has advanced amytrophic lateral
sclerosis?
Speaking
Walking
Thinking
Eating
459
What are the classic symptoms of carpal tunnel
syndrome?
Paralysis of the hand
Uncontrolled twitching of the hands and feet
Redness and bulging of tissue in the wrist area
Pain and numbness of the thumbs and fingers
460
What are the classic symptoms of carpal tunnel
syndrome?
Paralysis of the hand
Uncontrolled twitching of the hands and feet
Redness and bulging of tissue in the wrist area
Pain and numbness of the thumbs and fingers
461
Of the following, which inflammatory disease
affects the coverings of the brain and/or spinal
cord?
Meningitis
Neuralgia
Shingles
Encephalitis
462
Of the following, which inflammatory disease
affects the coverings of the brain and/or spinal
cord?
Meningitis
Neuralgia
Shingles
Encephalitis
463
Last year Jeremy was in a wheelchair but today
he can walk because he is in remission. What,
MOST LIKELY, does he have?
Cerebral Palsy
Multiple sclerosis
Paralysis
Amytrophic lateral sclerosis
464
Last year Jeremy was in a wheelchair but today
he can walk because he is in remission. What,
MOST LIKELY, does he have?
Cerebral Palsy
Multiple sclerosis
Paralysis
Amytrophic lateral sclerosis
465
What diagnostic test would be used to
diagnose epilepsy?
Lumbar puncture
Electroencephalogram
Skin culture
Cerebral arteriogram
466
What diagnostic test would be used to
diagnose epilepsy?
Lumbar puncture
Electroencephalogram
Skin culture
Cerebral arteriogram
467
Which of the following disorders can be cured?
Meningitis
Cerebral palsy
Dementia
Parkinson’s disease
468
Which of the following disorders can be cured?
Meningitis
Cerebral palsy
Dementia
Parkinson’s disease
469
In addition to the nervous system, what other
body system is clearly involved when someone
has shingles?
Muscular
Digestive
Skeletal
Integumentary
470
In addition to the nervous system, what other
body system is clearly involved when someone
has shingles?
Muscular
Digestive
Skeletal
Integumentary
471
What disorders of the nervous system are usually
present at birth?
Multiple sclerosis and shingles
Multiple sclerosis and hydrocephalus
Hydrocephalus and cerebral palsy
Cerebral palsy and shingles
472
What disorders of the nervous system are usually
present at birth?
Multiple sclerosis and shingles
Multiple sclerosis and hydrocephalus
Hydrocephalus and cerebral palsy
Cerebral palsy and shingles
473
Reproductive
System
474
What two structures are located inside the
scrotum?
Epididymis and prostate gland
Prostate gland and seminal vesicles
Seminal vesicles and testes
Testes and epididymis
475
What two structures are located inside the
scrotum?
Epididymis and prostate gland
Prostate gland and seminal vesicles
Seminal vesicles and testes
Testes and epididymis
476
What is surgically removed during a
circumcision?
Foreskin
Cowper’s gland
Scrotum
Vas deferens
477
What is surgically removed during a
circumcision?
Foreskin
Cowper’s gland
Scrotum
Vas deferens
478
Where does semen go immediately after
passing through the ejaculatory ducts?
Outside the body
Epididymis
Urethra
Vas deferens
479
Where does semen go immediately after
passing through the ejaculatory ducts?
Outside the body
Epididymis
Urethra
Vas deferens
480
What structure contains muscular tissue that
contracts during ejaculation to aid in the
expulsion of semen?
Prostate gland
Bartholin’s gland
Epididymis
Testes
481
What structure contains muscular tissue that
contracts during ejaculation to aid in the
expulsion of semen?
Prostate gland
Bartholin’s gland
Epididymis
Testes
482
Why is the scrotum located outside the body?
The lower temperature is essential for sperm
production.
To protect the testes from abdominal trauma.
To keep the testes away from the infective
potential of the digestive system.
The vas deferens provides a longer pathway for
the maturation of sperm
483
Why is the scrotum located outside the body?
The lower temperature is essential for sperm
production.
To protect the testes from abdominal trauma.
To keep the testes away from the infective
potential of the digestive system.
The vas deferens provides a longer pathway for
the maturation of sperm
484
What is the function of the epididymis?
To secrete testosterone.
To store sperm until they mature.
To hold the testes.
To act as a passageway for sperm from the
urethra to the penis.
485
What is the function of the epididymis?
To secrete testosterone.
To store sperm until they mature.
To hold the testes.
To act as a passageway for sperm from the
urethra to the penis.
486
Where in the male reproductive system is
testosterone produced?
Ejaculatory ducts
Seminal vesicles
Testes
Prostate gland
487
Where in the male reproductive system is
testosterone produced?
Ejaculatory ducts
Seminal vesicles
Testes
Prostate gland
488
A man who receives a mumps vaccination is
less likely to get:
Testicular cancer.
Prostate cancer.
Cryptorchidism.
Orchitis.
489
A man who receives a mumps vaccination is
less likely to get:
Testicular cancer.
Prostate cancer.
Cryptorchidism.
Orchitis.
490
A 65 year-old healthy male begins to have
difficulty starting to urinate, urinary frequency,
and nocturia. What MOST LIKELY is the cause?
Prostatic hypertrophy
Testicular cancer
Epididymitis
Orchitis
491
A 65 year-old healthy male begins to have
difficulty starting to urinate, urinary frequency,
and nocturia. What MOST LIKELY is the cause?
Prostatic hypertrophy
Testicular cancer
Epididymitis
Orchitis
492
Occasionally, one or both testes do not
descend properly before birth. This condition is
known as:
Circumcision.
Cryptorchidism.
Orchitis.
Epididymitis.
493
Occasionally, one or both testes do not
descend properly before birth. This condition is
known as:
Circumcision.
Cryptorchidism.
Orchitis.
Epididymitis.
494
Testicular cancer is most common in what age?
Elementary boys
High school boys
Young adult men
Men over 65 years-old
495
Testicular cancer is most common in what age?
Elementary boys
High school boys
Young adult men
Men over 65 years-old
496
The female gonads are the:
Ovaries.
Fallopian tubes.
Follicles.
Mammary glands.
497
The female gonads are the:
Ovaries.
Fallopian tubes.
Follicles.
Mammary glands.
498
What happens when a follicle ruptures?
Menstruation
Menopause
Ovulation
Lactation
499
What happens when a follicle ruptures?
Menstruation
Menopause
Ovulation
Lactation
500
Where does fertilization of an ovum usually take
place?
In the ovary
In the cervix
In the uterus
In the fallopian tube
501
Where does fertilization of an ovum usually take
place?
In the ovary
In the cervix
In the uterus
In the fallopian tube
502
What reproductive structure is described as a
hollow, muscular, pear-shaped organ?
Uterus
Vagina
Perineum
Ovary
503
What reproductive structure is described as a
hollow, muscular, pear-shaped organ?
Uterus
Vagina
Perineum
Ovary
504
Which of the following is part of the uterus?
Areola
Perineum
Fimbriae
Fundus
505
Which of the following is part of the uterus?
Areola
Perineum
Fimbriae
Fundus
506
During menstruation, the bleeding is the result
of:
Detachment of the myometrium.
Deterioration of the endometrium.
A ruptured follicle.
A ruptured fallopian tube.
507
During menstruation, the bleeding is the result
of:
Detachment of the myometrium.
Deterioration of the endometrium.
A ruptured follicle.
A ruptured fallopian tube.
508
What part of the external female genitalia
provides padding for the public bone?
Clitoris
Labia minora
Mons pubis
Perineum
509
What part of the external female genitalia
provides padding for the public bone?
Clitoris
Labia minora
Mons pubis
Perineum
510
When does a woman experience lactation?
During fertilization
After ovulation
During labor and delivery
After childbirth
511
When does a woman experience lactation?
During fertilization
After ovulation
During labor and delivery
After childbirth
512
At what age does the American Cancer
Society recommend a baseline mammogram
for women?
20 – 30 years old
35 – 40 years old
45 – 50 years old
55 – 60 years old
513
At what age does the American Cancer
Society recommend a baseline mammogram
for women?
20 – 30 years old
35 – 40 years old
45 – 50 years old
55 – 60 years old
514
What would cause a positive Pap smear?
Herpes
Endometriosis
Cervical cancer
Breast cancer
515
What would cause a positive Pap smear?
Herpes
Endometriosis
Cervical cancer
Breast cancer
516
A woman who is NOT sexually active could still
develop:
Endometriosis.
Chlamydia.
Gonorrhea.
Syphilis.
517
A woman who is NOT sexually active could still
develop:
Endometriosis.
Chlamydia.
Gonorrhea.
Syphilis.
518
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome can be
prevented by:
A vaccine.
Antibiotics.
Diet and exercise.
Avoiding risky behavior.
519
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome can be
prevented by:
A vaccine.
Antibiotics.
Diet and exercise.
Avoiding risky behavior.
520
This disease can be cured with
antibiotics in the first two stages, but
untreated, can cause damage to
the heart, brain damage, mental
disorders, deafness and blindness.
What is the disease?
Syphilis
Herpes
Uterine cancer
Chlamydia
521
This disease can be cured with
antibiotics in the first two stages, but
untreated, can cause damage to
the heart, brain damage, mental
disorders, deafness and blindness.
What is the disease?
Syphilis
Herpes
Uterine cancer
Chlamydia
522
What do the initials PID stand for?
Pelvic Immune Disorder
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Perineal Inflammatory Disorder
Perineal Immune Deficiency
523
What do the initials PID stand for?
Pelvic Immune Disorder
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Perineal Inflammatory Disorder
Perineal Immune Deficiency
524
Respiratory
System
525
What is the primary function of mucus and cilia
in the nostrils?
Sound production
Filtration
Temperature control
Respiration
526
What is the primary function of mucus and cilia
in the nostrils?
Sound production
Filtration
Temperature control
Respiration
527
Where are the sinuses located?
In the front lobe of the brain
In the skull surrounding the nasal cavity
Inside the nares
Under the cheek bones in the subcutaneous
tissue
528
Where are the sinuses located?
In the front lobe of the brain
In the skull surrounding the nasal cavity
Inside the nares
Under the cheek bones in the subcutaneous
tissue
529
What structure is a passageway for both food
and air?
Pharynx
Bronchus
Trachea
Larynx
530
What structure is a passageway for both food
and air?
Pharynx
Bronchus
Trachea
Larynx
531
If your epiglottis were to suddenly stop working,
what activity could be life threatening?
Breathing
Walking
Coughing
Eating
532
If your epiglottis were to suddenly stop working,
what activity could be life threatening?
Breathing
Walking
Coughing
Eating
533
The nostrils, larynx and trachea are all made
primarily of:
Cartilage.
Bone.
Muscle.
Tendons.
534
The nostrils, larynx and trachea are all made
primarily of:
Cartilage.
Bone.
Muscle.
Tendons.
535
What structure connects the larynx to the
bronchi?
Pleura
Oropharynx
Trachea
Bronchioles
536
What structure connects the larynx to the
bronchi?
Pleura
Oropharynx
Trachea
Bronchioles
537
Where in the respiratory tract does the
exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take
place?
Larynx
Bronchi
Trachea
Alveoli
538
Where in the respiratory tract does the
exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take
place?
Larynx
Bronchi
Trachea
Alveoli
539
Your lungs are divided into lobes. How many
lobes do you have?
Two
Three
Four
Five
540
Your lungs are divided into lobes. How many
lobes do you have?
Two
Three
Four
Five
541
What does the pleura allow the lungs to do?
Expand during breathing
Trap dust and other particles
Keep the alveoli distended
Cough
542
What does the pleura allow the lungs to do?
Expand during breathing
Trap dust and other particles
Keep the alveoli distended
Cough
543
In the process of breathing, during what stage
does the movement of the diaphragm enlarge
the thoracic cavity?
Internal respiration
External respiration
Inspiration
Expiration
544
In the process of breathing, during what stage
does the movement of the diaphragm enlarge
the thoracic cavity?
Internal respiration
External respiration
Inspiration
Expiration
545
During cellular respiration, what happens to the
carbon dioxide?
It leaves the alveoli and is exhaled from the lungs
It leaves the bloodstream and enters the alveoli
It leaves the cells and enters the bloodstream
It leaves the alveoli and enters the bloodstream
546
During cellular respiration, what happens to the
carbon dioxide?
It leaves the alveoli and is exhaled from the lungs
It leaves the bloodstream and enters the alveoli
It leaves the cells and enters the bloodstream
It leaves the alveoli and enters the bloodstream
547
If a person could not produce surfactant,
his/her:
Alveoli would collapse.
Bronchi would collapse.
Vocal cords would not vibrate.
Epiglottis would close.
548
If a person could not produce surfactant,
his/her:
Alveoli would collapse.
Bronchi would collapse.
Vocal cords would not vibrate.
Epiglottis would close.
549
Barbara has asthma and uses an inhaler when
she starts to wheeze. The purpose of the device
is to:
Dissolve mucus.
Contract blood vessels.
Liquefy secretions in the lungs.
Enlarge the bronchioles.
550
Barbara has asthma and uses an inhaler when
she starts to wheeze. The purpose of the device
is to:
Dissolve mucus.
Contract blood vessels.
Liquefy secretions in the lungs.
Enlarge the bronchioles.
551
MOST respiratory disorders are caused by:
Infection.
Lack of exercise.
Heredity.
Poor circulation.
552
MOST respiratory disorders are caused by:
Infection.
Lack of exercise.
Heredity.
Poor circulation.
553
What is the best treatment for mild epistaxis
caused by a bump in the nose?
Pack the nose with gauze
Compress the nostrils, elevate and tilt the head
slightly forward
Cauterize the bleeder
Lay flat on the back, head back, and pack the
nose with tissue
554
What is the best treatment for mild epistaxis
caused by a bump in the nose?
Pack the nose with gauze
Compress the nostrils, elevate and tilt the head
slightly forward
Cauterize the bleeder
Lay flat on the back, head back, and pack the
nose with tissue
555
Mr. Arnot is a heavy smoker with a chronic
cough, bluish tint to his skin, and a barrel chest.
He MOST LIKLEY suffers from:
Emphysema.
Epistaxis.
Tuberculosis.
Pleurisy.
556
Mr. Arnot is a heavy smoker with a chronic
cough, bluish tint to his skin, and a barrel chest.
He MOST LIKLEY suffers from:
Emphysema.
Epistaxis.
Tuberculosis.
Pleurisy.
557
Sarah has a chest x-ray that shows she
has tubercles in her lungs. What does
that mean?
She had tuberculosis in the past but has
recovered.
She has a dormant form of tuberculosis that
could become active if her resistance is
lowered.
She has an active case of tuberculosis and is
being treated with antibiotics.
She has a history of an infection that is similar
to tuberculosis and therefore is immune to TB
558
Sarah has a chest x-ray that shows she
has tubercles in her lungs. What does
that mean?
She had tuberculosis in the past but has
recovered.
She has a dormant form of tuberculosis that
could become active if her resistance is
lowered.
She has an active case of tuberculosis and is
being treated with antibiotics.
She has a history of an infection that is similar
to tuberculosis and therefore is immune to TB
559
What statement is true about lung cancer?
The prognosis is good.
Treatment includes hormone therapy and blood
transfusions.
It is the leading cause of cancer death in men
and women.
Second hand smoke rarely contributes to the
development of lung cancer.
560
What statement is true about lung cancer?
The prognosis is good.
Treatment includes hormone therapy and blood
transfusions.
It is the leading cause of cancer death in men
and women.
Second hand smoke rarely contributes to the
development of lung cancer.
561
What diagnostic test provides physicians with a
direct look at the lining of the respiratory tract?
CPAP
Bronchoscopy
Pulmonary function tests
Chest x-ray
562
What diagnostic test provides physicians with a
direct look at the lining of the respiratory tract?
CPAP
Bronchoscopy
Pulmonary function tests
Chest x-ray
563
Skeletal
Syetem
564
The bones function as levers in coordination
with what other body system?
Circulatory
Digestive
Integumentary
Muscular
565
The bones function as levers in coordination
with what other body system?
Circulatory
Digestive
Integumentary
Muscular
566
The skeletal system is responsible for the
production of:
Adrenalin.
Red blood cells.
Vitamins A and D.
Calcium.
567
The skeletal system is responsible for the
production of:
Adrenalin.
Red blood cells.
Vitamins A and D.
Calcium.
568
The tibia is an example of a/an:
Long bone.
Axial bone.
Flat bone.
Short bone
569
The tibia is an example of a/an:
Long bone.
Axial bone.
Flat bone.
Short bone
570
Of the following bones, which would MOST
LIKELY contain red marrow?
Metacarpals
Sternum
Patella
Fibula
571
Of the following bones, which would MOST
LIKELY contain red marrow?
Metacarpals
Sternum
Patella
Fibula
572
The vertebrae are part of the:
Pelvic girdle.
Shoulder girdle.
Axial skeleton.
Appendicular skeleton.
573
The vertebrae are part of the:
Pelvic girdle.
Shoulder girdle.
Axial skeleton.
Appendicular skeleton.
574
What does a newborn have that most adults do
not have?
Foramina
Sutures
Sinuses
Fontanels
575
What does a newborn have that most adults do
not have?
Foramina
Sutures
Sinuses
Fontanels
576
Where would you find the periosteum?
In the medullary cavity
Outside the bone
Inside the epiphyses
Outside a fontanel
577
Where would you find the periosteum?
In the medullary cavity
Outside the bone
Inside the epiphyses
Outside a fontanel
578
What two bones articulate with each other?
Patella and ulna
Vertebrae and sternum
Metacarpals and phalanges
Carpals and humerus
579
What two bones articulate with each other?
Patella and ulna
Vertebrae and sternum
Metacarpals and phalanges
Carpals and humerous
580
What type of joint connects the parietal bones
to the temporal bone?
Synovial
Diarthrosis
Suture
Fontanel
581
What type of joint connects the parietal bones
to the temporal bone?
Synovial
Diarthrosis
Suture
Fontanel
582
What bone do you have the greatest number
of in your body?
Femurs
Phalanges
Cranial bones
Scapulas
583
What bone do you have the greatest number
of in your body?
Femurs
Phalanges
Cranial bones
Scapulas
584
What skeletal structure is located in the skull?
Sinus
Epiphysis
Diaphysis
Carpal
585
What skeletal structure is located in the skull?
Sinus
Epiphysis
Diaphysis
Carpal
586
What is the function of an osteoblast?
To form new bone tissue
To fight infection
To produce erythrocytes and leukocytes
Protection
587
What is the function of an osteoblast?
To form new bone tissue
To fight infection
To produce erythrocytes and leukocytes
Protection
588
Where would you find metatarsals?
Above the knee
In the elbow
In the instep of the foot
At the bottom of the spinal column
589
Where would you find metatarsals?
Above the knee
In the elbow
In the instep of the foot
At the bottom of the spinal column
590
A woman who is 50 years old has started to
have mild symptoms of arthritis in her hips. How
would her condition be treated?
Bedrest and steroids
Arthroplasty
Aspirin and exercise
Immobilization with a splint
591
A woman who is 50 years old has started to
have mild symptoms of arthritis in her hips. How
would her condition be treated?
Bedrest and steroids
Arthroplasty
Aspirin and exercise
Immobilization with a splint
592
Bursitis usually affects the:
Long bones.
Joints.
Neck.
Feet.
593
Bursitis usually affects the:
Long bones.
Joints.
Neck.
Feet.
594
What skeletal disorder is usually treated with
physical therapy, traction or surgery?
Arthritis
Dislocation
Herniated disk
Osteoporosis
595
What skeletal disorder is usually treated with
physical therapy, traction or surgery?
Arthritis
Dislocation
Herniated disk
Osteoporosis
596
Maria has kyphosis. What part of her vertebral
column is out of normal alignment?
Thoracic
Lumbar
Coccyxgeal
Cervical
597
Maria has kyphosis. What part of her vertebral
column is out of normal alignment?
Thoracic
Lumbar
Coccyxgeal
Cervical
598
What bone disorder resulting from a loss of
calcium and phosphorus is common among
elderly females?
Scoliosis
Gout
Sprain
Osteoporosis
599
What bone disorder resulting from a loss of
calcium and phosphorus is common among
elderly females?
Scoliosis
Gout
Sprain
Osteoporosis
600
Leonard has a greenstick fracture. What can
you assume about Leonard?
He twisted his leg skiing
He was hit in the head
He is a child
He has an increased chance of infection
601
Leonard has a greenstick fracture. What can
you assume about Leonard?
He twisted his leg skiing
He was hit in the head
He is a child
He has an increased chance of infection
602
Approximately 75% of the time, a first attack of
gout affects the
Neck.
Big toe.
Long bones.
Wrist.
603
Approximately 75% of the time, a first attack of
gout affects the
Neck.
Big toe.
Long bones.
Wrist.
604
Special Senses
605
What function do the orbits, eye lashes, and
lacrimal glands all have in common?
Nutrition
Lubrication
Protection
Excretion
606
What function do the orbits, eye lashes, and
lacrimal glands all have in common?
Nutrition
Lubrication
Protection
Excretion
607
When you cry and your nose runs, what fluid is
coming out through your nose?
Tears
Cerebrospinal fluid
Aqueous humor
Mucus
608
When you cry and your nose runs, what fluid is
coming out through your nose?
Tears
Cerebrospinal fluid
Aqueous humor
Mucus
609
When you look in the mirror, what part of the
eye can you NOT see?
Iris
Pupil
Sclera
Retina
610
When you look in the mirror, what part of the
eye can you NOT see?
Iris
Pupil
Sclera
Retina
611
What are two functions of the lens of the eye?
Refraction and accommodation
Impulse reception and transmission
Maintains the shape of the eyeball and refracts
light
Color vision and night vision
612
What are two functions of the lens of the eye?
Refraction and accommodation
Impulse reception and transmission
Maintains the shape of the eyeball and refracts
light
Color vision and night vision
613
What part of the eye is actually a mucous
membrane?
Sclera
Cornea
Choroid coat
Conjunctiva
614
What part of the eye is actually a mucous
membrane?
Sclera
Cornea
Choroid coat
Conjunctiva
615
When a person looks at an image, light rays
pass through the eye and focus on the:
Pupil.
Retina.
Optic nerve.
Lens.
616
When a person looks at an image, light rays
pass through the eye and focus on the:
Pupil.
Retina.
Optic nerve.
Lens.
617
What eye condition can occur in someone with
a normally shaped eyeball?
Myopia
Hyperopia
Presbyopia
Astigmatism
618
What eye condition can occur in someone with
a normally shaped eyeball?
Myopia
Hyperopia
Presbyopia
Astigmatism
619
How is glaucoma usually treated?
Medication
Surgical removal of the lens
Corrective lenses
Radial keratotomy
620
How is glaucoma usually treated?
Medication
Surgical removal of the lens
Corrective lenses
Radial keratotomy
621
What eye condition occurs more frequently in
children?
Cataract
Glaucoma
Strabismus
Presbyopia
622
What eye condition occurs more frequently in
children?
Cataract
Glaucoma
Strabismus
Presbyopia
623
What disorder can often be corrected with
radial keratotomy (RK)?
Myopia
Cataract
Strabismus
Amblyopia
624
What disorder can often be corrected with
radial keratotomy (RK)?
Myopia
Cataract
Strabismus
Amblyopia
625
What is the largest structure of the ear?
Malleus
Cochlea
Pinna
Tympanic membrane
626
What is the largest structure of the ear?
Malleus
Cochlea
Pinna
Tympanic membrane
627
Where would you find cerumen?
Eustachian tube
External auditory canal
Semicircular canals
Cochlea
628
Where would you find cerumen?
Eustachian tube
External auditory canal
Semicircular canals
Cochlea
629
If your ossicles were removed, you would NOT
be able to:
Equalize pressure on both sides of the tympanic
membrane.
Maintain your sense of balance.
Transmit sound waves to the inner ear.
Carry nerve impulses to the cerebrum.
630
If your ossicles were removed, you would NOT
be able to:
Equalize pressure on both sides of the tympanic
membrane.
Maintain your sense of balance.
Transmit sound waves to the inner ear.
Carry nerve impulses to the cerebrum.
631
Of the following, when a sound is heard, what
structure would be the first to transmit the sound
wave?
Organ of Corti
Cochlea
Stapes
Tympanic membrane
632
Of the following, when a sound is heard, what
structure would be the first to transmit the sound
wave?
Organ of Corti
Cochlea
Stapes
Tympanic membrane
633
What organ of the inner ear is NOT involved in
hearing?
Vestibule
Cochlea
Organ of Corti
Semicircular canals
634
What organ of the inner ear is NOT involved in
hearing?
Vestibule
Cochlea
Organ of Corti
Semicircular canals
635
What statement about the sense of taste is
true?
Taste is influenced by the sense of smell.
Taste buds are called lacteals.
There are no taste buds in the back of the
tongue.
There are two main tastes, sweet and salty
636
What statement about the sense of taste is
true?
Taste is influenced by the sense of smell.
Taste buds are called lacteals.
There are no taste buds in the back of the
tongue.
There are two main tastes, sweet and salty
637
Olfactory receptors can be found:
On the tongue.
In the nose.
In the ear.
In the skin.
638
Olfactory receptors can be found:
On the tongue.
In the nose.
In the ear.
In the skin.
639
Pauline has a conductive hearing loss, which
can be caused by:
Auditory nerve damage.
An infection in the semicircular canals.
A ruptured tympanic membrane.
Damage to the cochlea.
640
Pauline has a conductive hearing loss, which
can be caused by:
Auditory nerve damage.
An infection in the semicircular canals.
A ruptured tympanic membrane.
Damage to the cochlea.
641
What disorder could be treated by the surgical
insertion of an artificial stapes?
Otosclerosis
Meniere’s disease
Otitis media
Sensory hearing loss
642
What disorder could be treated by the surgical
insertion of an artificial stapes?
Otosclerosis
Meniere’s disease
Otitis media
Sensory hearing loss
643
Organisms in the throat can travel up the
eustachian tube and cause:
Otosclerosis.
A cerumen plug.
Otitis media.
Meniere’s disease.
644
Organisms in the throat can travel up the
eustachian tube and cause:
Otosclerosis.
A cerumen plug.
Otitis media.
Meniere’s disease.
645
Urinary System
646
Where are the kidney’s located?
Below the waist, toward the back
Below the waist, toward the front
Above the waist, toward the back
Above the waist, toward the front
647
Where are the kidney’s located?
Below the waist, toward the back
Below the waist, toward the front
Above the waist, toward the back
Above the waist, toward the front
648
Which of the following is an example
of the urinary system’s ability to
maintain homeostasis?
A person drinks a large amount of water
and urinary output increases.
The kidneys are protected by a heavy
cushion of fat and a fibrous capsule.
As people get older, the frequency of
nocturia increases.
When physical activity increases, the
blood flow through the kidneys
decreases.
649
Which of the following is an example
of the urinary system’s ability to
maintain homeostasis?
A person drinks a large amount of water
and urinary output increases.
The kidneys are protected by a heavy
cushion of fat and a fibrous capsule.
As people get older, the frequency of
nocturia increases.
When physical activity increases, the
blood flow through the kidneys
decreases.
650
In what part of the urinary system does
peristalsis regularly occur?
Nephron
Ureters
Bladder
Urethra
651
In what part of the urinary system does
peristalsis regularly occur?
Nephron
Ureters
Bladder
Urethra
652
If you could see the inside lining of any empty
bladder, what would you see?
Villi
Lacteals
Rugae
Cilia
653
If you could see the inside lining of any empty
bladder, what would you see?
Villi
Lacteals
Rugae
Cilia
654
What is another term for urinate?
Eructate
Sweat
Defecate
Void
655
What is another term for urinate?
Eructate
Sweat
Defecate
Void
656
The urethra in the male serves two body systems
– urinary and:
Reproductive.
Endocrine.
Lymphatic.
Muscular.
657
The urethra in the male serves two body systems
– urinary and:
Reproductive.
Endocrine.
Lymphatic.
Muscular.
658
What is the last structure urine passes before
leaving the body?
Bladder
Ureter
Urinary meatus
Urethra
659
What is the last structure urine passes before
leaving the body?
Bladder
Ureter
Urinary meatus
Urethra
660
A construction worker falls and strikes his lower
abdomen on a hard object. What might he
experience as a result?
Anuria
Nocturia
Hematuria
Polyuria
661
A construction worker falls and strikes his lower
abdomen on a hard object. What might he
experience as a result?
Anuria
Nocturia
Hematuria
Polyuria
662
Pyuria, dysuria and fever are all symptoms of:
Renal failure.
Cystitis.
Uremia.
Nocturia.
663
Pyuria, dysuria and fever are all symptoms of:
Renal failure.
Cystitis.
Uremia.
Nocturia.
664
Why do women experience cystitis more
frequently than men?
Because of the length of the urethra
Because they urinate more frequently than males
Because of the location of the urethra
Because the uterus takes up space in the pelvis
665
Why do women experience cystitis more
frequently than men?
Because of the length of the urethra
Because they urinate more frequently than males
Because of the location of the urethra
Because the uterus takes up space in the pelvis
666
Henry had a hypersensitive reaction to a
medication and developed acute renal failure.
He received prompt medical attention and
hemodialysis. What is his prognosis?
Terminal
Poor
Fair, after a kidney transplant
Good
667
Henry had a hypersensitive reaction to a
medication and developed acute renal failure.
He received prompt medical attention and
hemodialysis. What is his prognosis?
Terminal
Poor
Fair, after a kidney transplant
Good
668
The presence of what condition would indicate
the urgent need for a kidney transplant?
Kidney stones
Kidney failure
Retention
Oliguria
669
The presence of what condition would indicate
the urgent need for a kidney transplant?
Kidney stones
Kidney failure
Retention
Oliguria
670
Patrice is not ill but drank a large amount of ice
tea. You would expect her to have:
Hematuria.
Anuria.
Polyuria.
Pyuria.
671
Patrice is not ill but drank a large amount of ice
tea. You would expect her to have:
Hematuria.
Anuria.
Polyuria.
Pyuria.
672
What does hemodialysis do?
Provide oxygen for the blood
Remove waste products from the blood
Add electrolytes to the blood
Balance the amount of water in the blo
673
What does hemodialysis do?
Provide oxygen for the blood
Remove waste products from the blood
Add electrolytes to the blood
Balance the amount of water in the blood
674
Legal Issues
675
Taking narcotics from the pharmacy by a
pharmacy technician is a violation of:
Social law.
Civil law.
Virtual law.
Criminal law.
676
Taking narcotics from the pharmacy by a
pharmacy technician is a violation of:
Social law.
Civil law.
Virtual law.
Criminal law.
677
A medication is ordered to be mixed in 1000 cc
of IV fluid for administration. If a nurse injects
the medication directly into a patient’s vein in
error, he/she could be guilty of:
Malpractice.
Assault.
Negligence.
Physical abuse.
678
A medication is ordered to be mixed in 1000 cc
of IV fluid for administration. If a nurse injects
the medication directly into a patient’s vein in
error, he/she could be guilty of:
Malpractice.
Assault.
Negligence.
Physical abuse.
679
Mr. Jones goes to a medical office with chest
pain. The physician orders an antacid and
does not do an EKG. That night, Mr. Jones dies
from a heart attack. The doctor could be
charged with:
Slander.
Defamation.
Negligence.
Battery.
680
Mr. Jones goes to a medical office with chest
pain. The physician orders an antacid and
does not do an EKG. That night, Mr. Jones dies
from a heart attack. The doctor could be
charged with:
Slander.
Defamation.
Negligence.
Battery.
681
An EMT is charged with battery. What did the
EMT do?
Informed the news media of a victim’s condition.
Treated a victim, even though the victim refused
treatment.
Failed to splint a broken leg and then moved the
victim.
Used inappropriate words to describe a victim’s
nationality
682
An EMT is charged with battery. What did the
EMT do?
Informed the news media of a victim’s condition.
Treated a victim, even though the victim refused
treatment.
Failed to splint a broken leg and then moved the
victim.
Used inappropriate words to describe a victim’s
nationality
683
Dr. Smith asks Bobbie, a medical
assistant, to help a patient, Mr.
Jones, to his car in a wheelchair. On
the way to the car, Bobbie
accidently runs into Mrs. Jones,
knocking her down. Mrs. Jones
suffers a broken hip and files a
lawsuit. Who is identified in the
lawsuit at the agent?
Dr. Smith
Bobbie
Mr. Jones
Mrs. Jones
684
Dr. Smith asks Bobbie, a medical
assistant, to help a patient, Mr.
Jones, to his car in a wheelchair. On
the way to the car, Bobbie
accidently runs into Mrs. Jones,
knocking her down. Mrs. Jones
suffers a broken hip and files a
lawsuit. Who is identified in the
lawsuit at the agent?
Dr. Smith
Bobbie
Mr. Jones
Mrs. Jones
685
A dental assistant tells her friends that a
hygienist she works with has a drinking problem.
If this is not true, the assistant could be guilty of:
Slander.
Malpractice.
Battery.
Libel.
686
A dental assistant tells her friends that a
hygienist she works with has a drinking problem.
If this is not true, the assistant could be guilty of:
Slander.
Malpractice.
Battery.
Libel.
687
Jan Shevlin goes to the laboratory
for bloodwork. She cooperates with
the phlebotomist by extending her
arm to have blood drawn. What
kind of agreement did the
phlebotomist have with this patient?
Informed consent
Formal consent
Implied contract
Expressed contract
688
Jan Shevlin goes to the laboratory
for bloodwork. She cooperates with
the phlebotomist by extending her
arm to have blood drawn. What
kind of agreement did the
phlebotomist have with this patient?
Informed consent
Formal consent
Implied contract
Expressed contract
689
An angry patient writes a letter to the
newspaper editor about a local
psychologist. The allegations in the
letter are clearly untrue and
damaging to the psychologist’s
practice. The letter writer could be
guilty of:
Assault.
Battery.
Slander.
Libel.
690
An angry patient writes a letter to the
newspaper editor about a local
psychologist. The allegations in the
letter are clearly untrue and
damaging to the psychologist’s
practice. The letter writer could be
guilty of:
Assault.
Battery.
Slander.
Libel.
691
A patient with a legal disability cannot:
A. Form a contract.
B. Be charged under criminal law.
C. Work in a healthcare setting.
D. Be seen in an emergency room.
692
A patient with a legal disability cannot:
A. Form a contract.
B. Be charged under criminal law.
C. Work in a healthcare setting.
D. Be seen in an emergency room.
693
Don is caring for his elderly mother. He could be
charged with psychological abuse if he:
A. Threatens to lock her in her room.
B. Uses profanity when he talks to her.
C. Does not give her enough to eat and drink.
D. Hits her.
694
Don is caring for his elderly mother. He could be
charged with psychological abuse if he:
A. Threatens to lock her in her room.
B. Uses profanity when he talks to her.
C. Does not give her enough to eat and drink.
D. Hits her.
695
Mark’s elderly father has been losing weight,
but tells Mark that his physician says he is fine.
Mark is not so sure and wants to read a copy
of his father’s chart. Is that possible?
A. No. Medical charts can only be viewed
by healthcare professionals.
B. No. Only a lawyer can request a copy of
a patient’s medical record.
C. Yes. Immediate family members can see
a patient’s chart.
D. Yes, but only if Mark’s father signs a
release form.
696
Mark’s elderly father has been losing weight,
but tells Mark that his physician says he is fine.
Mark is not so sure and wants to read a copy
of his father’s chart. Is that possible?
A. No. Medical charts can only be viewed
by healthcare professionals.
B. No. Only a lawyer can request a copy of
a patient’s medical record.
C. Yes. Immediate family members can see
a patient’s chart.
D. Yes, but only if Mark’s father signs a
release form.
697
What safeguard should be used to protect the
confidentiality of computerized medical records?
A. Daily virus scan
B. Weekly emptying of recycle bin
C. Use of passwords
D. Use of a firewall
698
What safeguard should be used to protect the
confidentiality of computerized medical records?
A. Daily virus scan
B. Weekly emptying of recycle bin
C. Use of passwords
D. Use of a firewall
699
Daria has a legal disability. What can she legally
do?
Sign a consent form.
Sign a HIPAA authorization.
Answer a doctor’s questions.
Enter into a contract.
700
Daria has a legal disability. What can she legally
do?
Sign a consent form.
Sign a HIPAA authorization.
Answer a doctor’s questions.
Enter into a contract.
701
A client decides to take his dog to a
different veterinarian and requests the
dog’s chart record. What is the client
entitled to?
A. The dog’s chart.
B. A copy of the chart.
C. Only selected information in the
chart as determined by the
veterinarian.
D. The client is not permitted to
receive any chart materials.
702
A client decides to take his dog to a
different veterinarian and requests the
dog’s chart record. What is the client
entitled to?
A. The dog’s chart.
B. A copy of the chart.
C. Only selected information in the
chart as determined by the
veterinarian.
D. The client is not permitted to
receive any chart materials.
703
When it comes to working with written
patient records, what can a healthcare
worker do?
A. Talk about chart information to
friends.
B. Erase any errors when writing in the
record.
C. Allow another healthcare worker who
is caring for the patient to see the record.
D. Change an entry in the record a
couple days after it was written.
704
When it comes to working with written
patient records, what can a
healthcare worker do?
A. Talk about chart information to
friends.
B. Erase any errors when writing in the
record.
C. Allow another healthcare worker
who is caring for the patient to see the
record.
D. Change an entry in the record a
couple days after it was written.
705
An 18 year-old female comes to the emergency
room. The doctor is absolutely sure she was
beaten, but she says she fell. What should the
doctor do?
A. Notify the police.
B. Notify the girl’s parents.
C. Treat her injuries and respect her privacy.
D. Believe what the patient says.
706
An 18 year-old female comes to the emergency
room. The doctor is absolutely sure she was
beaten, but she says she fell. What should the
doctor do?
A. Notify the police.
B. Notify the girl’s parents.
C. Treat her injuries and respect her privacy.
D. Believe what the patient says.
707
HIPAA is MOSTLY about:
A. Federal protection of healthcare workers.
B. Safe medical practices.
C. Accountability of health care providers.
D. Privacy of health information.
708
HIPAA is MOSTLY about:
A. Federal protection of healthcare workers.
B. Safe medical practices.
C. Accountability of health care providers.
D. Privacy of health information.
709
Mr. Bon signs a HIPAA authorization form
at a dental practice. An additional
authorization form would need to be
signed:
A. To give Mr. Bon’s complete dental
treatment information to his son.
B. For Mr. Bon to have his teeth cleaned.
C. Before the office can file a claim with
Mr. Bon’s medical insurance company.
D. Before any dental office employee,
other than the dentist, can look at
710
Mr. Bon signs a HIPAA authorization form
at a dental practice. An additional
authorization form would need to be
signed:
A. To give Mr. Bon’s complete dental
treatment information to his son.
B. For Mr. Bon to have his teeth cleaned.
C. Before the office can file a claim with
Mr. Bon’s medical insurance company.
D. Before any dental office employee,
other than the dentist, can look at
711
HIPAA rules require that certain diseases must be
reported by law to protect the public. Which of
the following diseases would fall into the category
of reportable diseases?
A. Diabetes
B. Syphilis
C. Gastroenteritis
D. Multiple sclerosis
712
HIPAA rules require that certain diseases must be
reported by law to protect the public. Which of
the following diseases would fall into the category
of reportable diseases?
A. Diabetes
B. Syphilis
C. Gastroenteritis
D. Multiple sclerosis
713
What does the P in HIPAA stand for?
A. Patient
B. Protection
C. Privacy
D. Portability
714
What does the P in HIPAA stand for?
A. Patient
B. Protection
C. Privacy
D. Portability
715
A physician’s office asks a new
patient to sign a HIPAA “Notice of
Privacy Practices” form. What is the
purpose of this form?
A. To inform patients of their privacy
rights under HIPAA.
B. To grant permission for the office
to release information to insurance
companies.
C. To allow office associates to
access the patient’s records.
D. To protect the office from being
charged with invasion of privacy.
716
A physician’s office asks a new
patient to sign a HIPAA “Notice of
Privacy Practices” form. What is the
purpose of this form?
A. To inform patients of their privacy
rights under HIPAA.
B. To grant permission for the office
to release information to insurance
companies.
C. To allow office associates to
access the patient’s records.
D. To protect the office from being
charged with invasion of privacy.
717
Which of the following as an example of a legal
directive?
A. An operative consent form
B. A HIPAA authorization form
C. Living Will
D. Malpractice law suit
718
Which of the following as an example of a legal
directive?
A. An operative consent form
B. A HIPAA authorization form
C. Living Will
D. Malpractice law suit
719
Fred is 89 years old and his health is failing.
He is still of sound mind, but knows that he
may not be able to make decisions for
himself in the future. What would allow him
to designate his adult son to make decisions
on his behalf?
A. Living Will
B. DNR request
C. HIPAA Authorization Form
D. Durable Power of Attorney
720
Fred is 89 years old and his health is
failing. He is still of sound mind, but
knows that he may not be able to
make decisions for himself in the
future. What would allow him to
designate his adult son to make
decisions on his behalf?
A. Living Will
B. DNR request
C. HIPAA Authorization Form
D. Durable Power of Attorney
721
What does the Patient Self
Determination Act require health
facilities to do?
A. Safeguard confidential patient
information.
B. Inform patients of their right to
make decisions regarding their rightto-die.
C. Give patient the option of
negotiating healthcare costs.
D. Provide patients with written
information about costs before they
consent to procedures.
722
What does the Patient Self
Determination Act require health
facilities to do?
A. Safeguard confidential patient
information.
B. Inform patients of their right to
make decisions regarding their rightto-die.
C. Give patient the option of
negotiating healthcare costs.
D. Provide patients with written
information about costs before they
consent to procedures.
723
When should a hospital employee file
a grievance?
A. When he/she believes another
healthcare worker is making sexual
advances.
B. When the problem involves his/her
immediate supervisor.
C. When multiple attempts to resolve
the issue have been ignored.
D. When he/she is scheduled to work
on a day that he/she had previously
requested to be off.
724
When should a hospital employee file
a grievance?
A. When he/she believes another
healthcare worker is making sexual
advances.
B. When the problem involves his/her
immediate supervisor.
C. When multiple attempts to resolve
the issue have been ignored.
D. When he/she is scheduled to work
on a day that he/she had previously
requested to be off.
725
Mr. and Mrs. Allen share a room at a
nursing home. Mrs. Allen’s daughter,
Mary, has durable power of attorney for
Mr. Allen. If Mr. Allen’s doctor
recommends surgery for Mr. Allen, who
must sign the permission form?
A. Mr. Allen
B. Mrs. Allen
C. The doctor
D. Mary
726
Mr. and Mrs. Allen share a room at a
nursing home. Mrs. Allen’s daughter,
Mary, has durable power of attorney
for Mr. Allen. If Mr. Allen’s doctor
recommends surgery for Mr. Allen,
who must sign the permission form?
A. Mr. Allen
B. Mrs. Allen
C. The doctor
D. Mary
727
A woman has a legally written and
witnessed Living Will that states she does
not want her life prolonged when her
condition is terminal. She is in a car
accident and suffers irreversible brain
damage. Her daughter wants her kept
alive on a respirator. What or who will
legally determine the patient’s future?
A. The daughter
B. The doctor
C. The Living Will
D. The court system
728
29. A woman has a legally written and
witnessed Living Will that states she
does not want her life prolonged
when her condition is terminal. She is
in a car accident and suffers
irreversible brain damage. Her
daughter wants her kept alive on a
respirator. What or who will legally
determine the patient’s future?
A. The daughter
B. The doctor
C. The Living Will
D. The court system
729
30. A physician writes a DNR order on a patient’s
chart. DNR is the medical abbreviation for:
A. Do not resuscitate.
B. Designated nurse responder.
C. Durable negotiated rights.
D. Doctor’s normal request.
730
30. A physician writes a DNR order on a patient’s
chart. DNR is the medical abbreviation for:
A. Do not resuscitate.
B. Designated nurse responder.
C. Durable negotiated rights.
D. Doctor’s normal request.
731
31. Does a hospitalized patient have the right to
refuse to have blood drawn?
A. Yes, but only if the doctor agrees.
B. Yes.
C. No. A hospitalized patient must comply with
the physician’s orders.
D. No, because the refusal of treatment is a
HIPAA violation.
732
31. Does a hospitalized patient have the right to
refuse to have blood drawn?
A. Yes, but only if the doctor agrees.
B. Yes.
C. No. A hospitalized patient must comply with
the physician’s orders.
D. No, because the refusal of treatment is a
HIPAA violation.
733
32. A client is told she needs an MRI, so
she has one done. A month later she
receives a bill for $500, the MRI charges
not covered by her insurance company.
What is she within her rights to do?
A. Refuse to pay the bill.
B. Ask for an explanation of the
charges.
C. Pay only what she thinks is
reasonable.
D. Sue her doctor for ordering the MRI.
734
32. A client is told she needs an MRI,
so she has one done. A month later
she receives a bill for $500, the MRI
charges not covered by her insurance
company. What is she within her rights
to do?
A. Refuse to pay the bill.
B. Ask for an explanation of the
charges.
C. Pay only what she thinks is
reasonable.
D. Sue her doctor for ordering the
MRI.
735
ETHICS
736
Hippocrates wrote standards for the ethical
behavior of physicians 2500 years ago in:
A.
Rome.
B.
Florence.
C.
Venice.
D.
Greece.
737
Hippocrates wrote standards for the ethical
behavior of physicians 2500 years ago in:
A.
Rome.
B.
Florence.
C.
Venice.
D.
Greece.
738
Most codes of ethics that govern the behavior of
healthcare professions are written by:
A.
Licensing agencies.
B.
State boards of health.
C.
Professional organizations.
D.
Health science textbook companies.
739
Most codes of ethics that govern the behavior of
healthcare professions are written by:
A.
Licensing agencies.
B.
State boards of health.
C.
Professional organizations.
D.
Health science textbook companies.
What statement about euthanasia and healthcare professionals
is true?
740
A. The decision to employ methods of euthanasia is exclusively
the physician’s.
B. Many healthcare professionals feel euthanasia is contrary to
their professional ethics.
C. Healthcare workers should always follow their ethical beliefs,
regardless of what the physician orders or the patient requests.
D.
Euthanasia is always illegal and unethical.
What statement about euthanasia and healthcare professionals
is true?
741
A. The decision to employ methods of euthanasia is exclusively
the physician’s.
B. Many healthcare professionals feel euthanasia is contrary to
their professional ethics.
C. Healthcare workers should always follow their ethical beliefs,
regardless of what the physician orders or the patient requests.
D.
Euthanasia is always illegal and unethical.
A grief-stricken family in the emergency room has
742
just been notified of the death of their child who
was hit by a car. What should the physician ask
regarding organ transplantation?
A. Do not ask since the family is in shock and
cannot make an informed decision.
B. Wait for five or six hours until the family has had
time to accept their loss and then ask about
organ donation.
C. Immediately ask the family for permission to
donate the child’s organs for transplantation.
D. Start the process of removing the organs, and
hope the family will give permission when asked.
A grief-stricken family in the emergency room has
743
just been notified of the death of their child who
was hit by a car. What should the physician ask
regarding organ transplantation?
A. Do not ask since the family is in shock and
cannot make an informed decision.
B. Wait for five or six hours until the family has had
time to accept their loss and then ask about
organ donation.
C. Immediately ask the family for permission to
donate the child’s organs for transplantation.
D. Start the process of removing the organs, and
hope the family will give permission when asked.
A couple wishes to have their own
744
biological child, but the wife had a
hysterectomy for medical reasons when she
was 25 years old. What option would give
them the best hope for having a child?
A. Genetic counseling and fertility drugs
B. Artificial insemination with sperm from a
sperm bank
C. Implantation of five to ten frozen
embryos
D. IVF of their own egg and sperm with
implantation in a surrogate
A couple wishes to have their own
745
biological child, but the wife had a
hysterectomy for medical reasons when she
was 25 years old. What option would give
them the best hope for having a child?
A. Genetic counseling and fertility drugs
B. Artificial insemination with sperm from a
sperm bank
C. Implantation of five to ten frozen
embryos
D. IVF of their own egg and sperm with
implantation in a surrogate
746
A nursing assistant refuses a request by the charge nurse to
take a pain pill to a patient. The assistant believes that giving
the pain medication would be a violation of his/her:
A. Scope of practice.
B. Religious beliefs.
C. Reasonable accommodation.
D. Rights under OSHA rules.
747
A nursing assistant refuses a request by the charge nurse to
take a pain pill to a patient. The assistant believes that giving
the pain medication would be a violation of his/her:
A. Scope of practice.
B. Religious beliefs.
C. Reasonable accommodation.
D. Rights under OSHA rules.
What MOST LIKELY would be a task of a hospital ethics
committee?
A. Approve discontinuation of life support on a terminally ill
patient.
B. Allow the hiring of a physical therapist whose license has
been revoked.
748
C. Termination of an employee who has frequent absences.
D. Censure a physician who is dating a medical laboratory
technician.
What MOST LIKELY would be a task of a hospital ethics
committee?
A. Approve discontinuation of life support on a terminally ill
patient.
B. Allow the hiring of a physical therapist whose license has
been revoked.
749
C. Termination of an employee who has frequent absences.
D. Censure a physician who is dating a medical laboratory
technician.
750
A psychiatrist recommends a 17 year-old be admitted to a
psychiatric facility to treat his depression. The parents refuse.
Two weeks later, the teen commits suicide. The psychiatrist
has MOST LIKELY violated:
A. Ethical standards.
B. Legal standards.
C. Both ethical and legal standards.
D. Neither ethical nor legal standards.
751
A psychiatrist recommends a 17 year-old be admitted to a
psychiatric facility to treat his depression. The parents refuse.
Two weeks later, the teen commits suicide. The psychiatrist
has MOST LIKELY violated:
A. Ethical standards.
B. Legal standards.
C. Both ethical and legal standards.
D. Neither ethical nor legal standards.
Janie is frequently late for work. Even when she arrives on752
time, she takes ten minutes to finish applying her make-up and
putting her hair up before beginning work. Her behavior MOST
LIKELY violates:
A. Ethical standards.
B. Legal standards.
C. Both ethical and legal standards.
D. Neither ethical or legal standards.
753
Janie is frequently late for work. Even when she arrives on time,
she takes ten minutes to finish applying her make-up and putting
her hair up before beginning work. Her behavior MOST LIKELY
violates:
A. Ethical standards.
B. Legal standards.
C. Both ethical and legal standards.
D. Neither ethical or legal standards.
754
Avi is born in Nigeria to African parents and is adopted at age
6 months by Spanish parents. He grows up in Spain as a
Roman Catholic. If Avi identifies himself as a Spaniard, he is
describing his:
A. Race.
B. Ethnicity.
C. Culture.
D. Religion.
755
Avi is born in Nigeria to African parents and is adopted at age
6 months by Spanish parents. He grows up in Spain as a
Roman Catholic. If Avi identifies himself as a Spaniard, he is
describing his:
A. Race.
B. Ethnicity.
C. Culture.
D. Religion.
756
Cammie was born and raised in South Africa. Her
skin, hair, and bone structure are Caucasian.
What is her race?
A. African
B. African-American
C. South African
D. White
757
Cammie was born and raised in South Africa. Her
skin, hair, and bone structure are Caucasian.
What is her race?
A. African
B. African-American
C. South African
D. White
758
What is the BEST approach for healthcare workers
to take when caring for patients from different
cultures?
A. Assimilation
B. Sensitivity
C. Acculturation
D. Ethnocentrism
759
What is the BEST approach for healthcare workers
to take when caring for patients from different
cultures?
A. Assimilation
B. Sensitivity
C. Acculturation
D. Ethnocentrism
Helen looks at her patient assignments and sees that one of
her patients is named Adolf. She feels a surge of anger 760
toward this patient because her great-grandparents were
killed by the Nazis in World War II. Her feelings about this
patient are classified as:
A. Ethnocentrism.
B. Bias.
C. Sensitivity.
D. Prejudice.
Helen looks at her patient assignments and sees that one of her
761
patients is named Adolf. She feels a surge of anger toward this
patient because her great-grandparents were killed by the Nazis
in World War II. Her feelings about this patient are classified as:
A. Ethnocentrism.
B. Bias.
C. Sensitivity.
D. Prejudice.
Darla was caring for a Native American patient whose
very long hair became tangled in a knot around the
762
oxygen tubing. In order to discontinue the oxygen as
ordered, Darla had to cut a small piece of the
patient’s hair. The patient became very upset.
Another nurse explained to Darla that cutting hair is
forbidden in the patient’s culture. What would be
most culturally considerate response by Darla?
A. Sincerely and deeply apologize to the patient and
her family.
B. Apologize and explain that cutting the hair was the
only option for removing the oxygen.
C. Tell the patient she is sorry she did not understand
the needs of the Native American culture.
D. Have the nursing supervisor apologize to the
patient.
Darla was caring for a Native American patient whose
very long hair became tangled in a knot around the
763
oxygen tubing. In order to discontinue the oxygen as
ordered, Darla had to cut a small piece of the
patient’s hair. The patient became very upset.
Another nurse explained to Darla that cutting hair is
forbidden in the patient’s culture. What would be
most culturally considerate response by Darla?
A. Sincerely and deeply apologize to the patient and
her family.
B. Apologize and explain that cutting the hair was the
only option for removing the oxygen.
C. Tell the patient she is sorry she did not understand
the needs of the Native American culture.
D. Have the nursing supervisor apologize to the
patient.
764
A dietician would put what important alert on the meal plan
for a patient of the Hindu faith?
A. Absolutely NO beef or beef
products!
B. Kosher food only!
C. Do NOT serve breakfast or lunch
on Saturday!
D. Allow wine with every meal!
765
A dietician would put what important alert on the meal plan
for a patient of the Hindu faith?
A. Absolutely NO beef or beef
products!
B. Kosher food only!
C. Do NOT serve breakfast or lunch
on Saturday!
D. Allow wine with every meal!
766
Healthcare workers should know that patients of
what faith will likely refuse a blood transfusion?
A. Roman Catholic
B. Islam
C. Judaism
D. Jehovah’s Witness
767
Healthcare workers should know that patients of
what faith will likely refuse a blood transfusion?
A. Roman Catholic
B. Islam
C. Judaism
D. Jehovah’s Witness
What must a healthcare worker do to achieve patient
satisfaction?
A. Smile and be friendly to the patient.
B. Meet the patient’s expectations.
C. Follow his/her scope of practice.
D. Give the patient as much
information as possible about
his/her condition and treatment.
768
What must a healthcare worker do to achieve patient
satisfaction?
A. Smile and be friendly to the patient.
B. Meet the patient’s expectations.
C. Follow his/her scope of practice.
D. Give the patient as much
information as possible about
his/her condition and treatment.
769
770
Guidelines for customer service suggest that a healthcare
worker should:
A. Never share his/her personal
problems with patients.
B. Always greet patients with a smile.
C. Speak using technical professional
language.
D. Never, ever disagree with a patient.
771
Guidelines for customer service suggest that a healthcare
worker should:
A. Never share his/her personal
problems with patients.
B. Always greet patients with a smile.
C. Speak using technical professional
language.
D. Never, ever disagree with a patient.
What physician is MOST LIKELY to be involved in a lawsuit?
A. A minority physician.
B. A physician who finished in the
lowest 10% of their medical school
graduating class.
C. A physician who cares for well
educated patients.
D. A physician who is abrupt and a
poor listener.
772
What physician is MOST LIKELY to be involved in a lawsuit?
A. A minority physician.
B. A physician who finished in the
lowest 10% of their medical school
graduating class.
C. A physician who cares for well
educated patients.
D. A physician who is abrupt and a
poor listener.
773
You are an ophthalmic technician in a small
optometry office. When checking out, a
774
patient informs you that she is not coming back
to this office. What should you do?
A. Wish her good luck.
B. Ask her to wait while you get the
Optometrist to talk with her.
C. Ask if something is wrong and if there is,
ask if she will sit down and explain the
problem to you.
D. Do nothing because she did not offer to
tell you if something was wrong with her
care.
You are an ophthalmic technician in a small
optometry office. When checking out, a
775
patient informs you that she is not coming back
to this office. What should you do?
A. Wish her good luck.
B. Ask her to wait while you get the
Optometrist to talk with her.
C. Ask if something is wrong and if there is,
ask if she will sit down and explain the
problem to you.
D. Do nothing because she did not offer to
tell you if something was wrong with her
care.
Nurse O’Conner forgot to properly secure a
bed rail causing her patient, Roger, to fall776
out of bed and bruise his hip. Nurse
O’Conner completed an incident report
form required by the hospital and filed it 3
months later. What general requirement of
incident reporting did Nurse O’Conner MOST
LIKELY violate?
A. Failure to focus on the facts in her report.
B. Failure to ensure prompt reporting.
C. Failure to follow hospital policies
regarding incident reports.
D. Failure to document property damage.
Nurse O’Conner forgot to properly secure a
bed rail causing her patient, Roger, to fall777
out of bed and bruise his hip. Nurse
O’Conner completed an incident report
form required by the hospital and filed it 3
months later. What general requirement of
incident reporting did Nurse O’Conner MOST
LIKELY violate?
A. Failure to focus on the facts in her report.
B. Failure to ensure prompt reporting.
C. Failure to follow hospital policies
regarding incident reports.
D. Failure to document property damage.
Legal violations and ethical violations
A. are both subject to criminal penalties. 778
B. differ because legal violations always
result in loss of license, whereas ethical
violations always result in suspension
from duty.
C. differ because legal violations are dealt
with in a court of law, whereas as ethical
violations are dealt with by licensing
agencies or professional organizations.
D. differ because only ethical violations must
be reported to licensing agencies.
Legal violations and ethical violations
A. are both subject to criminal penalties. 779
B. differ because legal violations always
result in loss of license, whereas ethical
violations always result in suspension
from duty.
C. differ because legal violations are dealt
with in a court of law, whereas as ethical
violations are dealt with by licensing
agencies or professional organizations.
D. differ because only ethical violations must
be reported to licensing agencies.
Which of the following is an ethical dilemma
that an ethics committee would be asked to780
consider?
A. Removing a terminally patient off a
respirator.
B. Following through on a Do Not
Resuscitate request.
C. Transplanting an organ to a patient
would is first on the transplant list.
D. Patient who is opting for a less
invasive treatment when an invasive
procedure is also available.
Which of the following is an ethical dilemma
that an ethics committee would be asked to781
consider?
A. Removing a terminally patient off a
respirator.
B. Following through on a Do Not
Resuscitate request.
C. Transplanting an organ to a patient
would is first on the transplant list.
D. Patient who is opting for a less
invasive treatment when an invasive
procedure is also available.
Dr. North went a networking event with
other physicians and conversed about a 782
patient he had, Ms. Kennedy. He was telling
jokes about some odd complaints she had
made and one of the physicians was a
personal friend of Ms. Kennedy’s, who was
later informed about what Dr. North had
said. Which ethical principle has Dr. North
violated?
A. Be honest.
B. Preserve life.
C. Be discreet.
D. Uphold justice.
Dr. North went a networking event with
other physicians and conversed about a 783
patient he had, Ms. Kennedy. He was telling
jokes about some odd complaints she had
made and one of the physicians was a
personal friend of Ms. Kennedy’s, who was
later informed about what Dr. North had
said. Which ethical principle has Dr. North
violated?
A. Be honest.
B. Preserve life.
C. Be discreet.
D. Uphold justice.
784
Dr. Ward treats the nurses that work with him very poorly and
he constantly disrespects them because he believes they are
inferior. This is an example of occupational
A. sensitivity.
B. prejudice.
C. bias.
D. stereotyping.
785
Dr. Ward treats the nurses that work with him very poorly and
he constantly disrespects them because he believes they are
inferior. This is an example of occupational
A. sensitivity.
B. prejudice.
C. bias.
D. stereotyping.
Safety
7.1
786
Infection Control
787
Where would you find an anaerobic
microorganism?
A.
On a toilet seat
B.
In the soil
C.
In the air
D.
In sterile water
788
Where would you find an anaerobic
microorganism?
A.
On a toilet seat
B.
In the soil
C.
In the air
D.
In sterile water
789
What statement about bacteria is true?
A.
All bacteria are harmful
B.
All bacteria are round
C.
All bacteria reproduce inside other
living cells
D.
All bacteria are single-celled organisms
790
What statement about bacteria is true?
A.
All bacteria are harmful
B.
All bacteria are round
C.
All bacteria reproduce inside other
living cells
D.
All bacteria are single-celled organisms
791
A patient’s sore throat is caused by a
streptococcus. How would it be treated?
A.
Antibiotic medication
B.
Antifungal gargle
C.
Antiviral throat wash
D.
There is no treatment for streptococcus
792
A patient’s sore throat is caused by a
streptococcus. How would it be treated?
A.
Antibiotic medication
B.
Antifungal gargle
C.
Antiviral throat wash
D.
There is no treatment for streptococcus
793
A man died from an infection caused by a rickettsia.
The infection was MOST LIKELY transmitted by:
A.
Walking barefoot in a locker room.
B.
A blood transfusion.
C.
The bite of a tick.
D.
Breathing in contaminated air.
794
A man died from an infection caused by a rickettsia.
The infection was MOST LIKELY transmitted by:
A.
Walking barefoot in a locker room.
B.
A blood transfusion.
C.
The bite of a tick.
D.
Breathing in contaminated air.
795
What organism can only be seen with an electron
microscope?
A. Virus
B. Protozoa
C. Bacteria
D. Fungus
796
What organism can only be seen with an electron
microscope?
A. Virus
B. Protozoa
C. Bacteria
D. Fungus
797
Beth has a nosocomial infection. How did she get
it?
A. Hiking in the woods.
B. Having a massage at a hotel spa.
C. Eating contaminated food.
D. Spending three days in the hospital.
798
Beth has a nosocomial infection. How did she get
it?
A. Hiking in the woods.
B. Having a massage at a hotel spa.
C. Eating contaminated food.
D. Spending three days in the hospital.
799
All pathogens are:
A. Animal-like.
B. Disease-producing.
C. Destroyed by antibiotics.
D. Transmitted by insects.
800
All pathogens are:
A. Animal-like.
B. Disease-producing.
C. Destroyed by antibiotics.
D. Transmitted by insects.
801
Tuberculosis is caused by a tubercle bacillus,
which is a/an:
A. Virus.
B. Protozoa.
C. Bacteria.
D. Fungus.
802
Tuberculosis is caused by a tubercle bacillus,
which is a/an:
A. Virus.
B. Protozoa.
C. Bacteria.
D. Fungus.
803
Albert has a yeast infection under his arm. It
should be treated with a/an:
A. Antifungal cream.
B. Antibiotic ointment.
C. Vaccination.
D. Hot compress
804
Albert has a yeast infection under his arm. It
should be treated with a/an:
A. Antifungal cream.
B. Antibiotic ointment.
C. Vaccination.
D. Hot compress
805
An infection that develops when the body’s
normal defenses are not working properly is a/an:
A. Mutant infection.
B. Nonpathogenic infection.
C. Opportunistic infection.
D. Recessive infection.
806
An infection that develops when the body’s
normal defenses are not working properly is a/an:
A. Mutant infection.
B. Nonpathogenic infection.
C. Opportunistic infection.
D. Recessive infection.
807
A sterile towel falls on the floor. The towel would
then be considered:
A. Infectious.
B. Contaminated.
C. Antiseptic.
D. Disinfected.
808
A sterile towel falls on the floor. The towel would
then be considered:
A. Infectious.
B. Contaminated.
C. Antiseptic.
D. Disinfected.
809
What could be found on the surface of a sterile
instrument?
A. Viruses
B. Spores
C. Microbes
D. Nothing
810
What could be found on the surface of a sterile
instrument?
A. Viruses
B. Spores
C. Microbes
D. Nothing
811
OSHA regulations require hospitals to give their
employees with occupational exposure what
vaccine free of charge?
A. Influenza
B. Mumps
C. Meningitis
D. Hepatitis B
812
OSHA regulations require hospitals to give their
employees with occupational exposure what
vaccine free of charge?
A. Influenza
B. Mumps
C. Meningitis
D. Hepatitis B
813
OSHA regulations require hospitals to give their
employees with occupational exposure what
vaccine free of charge?
A. Influenza
B. Mumps
C. Meningitis
D. Hepatitis B
814
A patient has an infection and is on airborne
precautions. If the patient must be transported to
physical therapy, what should the patient wear?
A. A mask
B. Goggles
C. Gloves
D. A gown
815
A patient has an infection and is on airborne
precautions. If the patient must be transported to
physical therapy, what should the patient wear?
A. A mask
B. Goggles
C. Gloves
D. A gown
816
What would a health care worker report in a
sharps injury log?
A. Patient pain medication injections
B. Emergency room patients with cuts
that require suturing
C. When he/she breaks any equipment
D. Sticking himself/herself with a
needle
817
What would a health care worker report in a
sharps injury log?
A. Patient pain medication injections
B. Emergency room patients with cuts
that require suturing
C. When he/she breaks any equipment
D. Sticking himself/herself with a
needle
818
What healthcare professional should wear eye protection?
A. A nursing assistant taking a blood
pressure.
B. A pharmacist filling a prescription for
an antibiotic.
C. A dentist extracting a tooth.
D. An EMT responding to a possible
cardiac arrest.
819
What healthcare professional should wear eye protection?
A. A nursing assistant taking a blood
pressure.
B. A pharmacist filling a prescription for
an antibiotic.
C. A dentist extracting a tooth.
D. An EMT responding to a possible
cardiac arrest.
When should health care workers wear gowns and gloves?
A. When there is a chance of contact
with blood and body fluids.
B. When entering the room of a patient
who is HIV positive.
C. When she/he has a cold.
D. When caring for any patient with an
upper respiratory tract infection.
820
When should health care workers wear gowns and gloves?
A. When there is a chance of contact
with blood and body fluids.
B. When entering the room of a patient
who is HIV positive.
C. When she/he has a cold.
D. When caring for any patient with an
upper respiratory tract infection.
821
822
What does OSHA require health facilities to
provide for all employees who come in contact
with patients?
A. Health insurance
B. PPE
C. Annual chest x-rays
D. A watch with a second hand
823
What does OSHA require health facilities to
provide for all employees who come in contact
with patients?
A. Health insurance
B. PPE
C. Annual chest x-rays
D. A watch with a second hand
824
A healthcare worker who observes standard
precautions would dispose of infectious waste in
a/an:
A. Recycle container.
B. Biohazard container.
C. Autoclave.
D. Incinerator.
825
A healthcare worker who observes standard
precautions would dispose of infectious waste in
a/an:
A. Recycle container.
B. Biohazard container.
C. Autoclave.
D. Incinerator.
826
When healthcare workers follow standard
precautions, they are practicing medical:
A. Asepsis.
B. Transmission.
C. Contamination.
D. Isolation.
827
When healthcare workers follow standard
precautions, they are practicing medical:
A. Asepsis.
B. Transmission.
C. Contamination.
D. Isolation.
Safety
7.2 Personal Safety
7.3 Environmental Safety
7.4 Common Safety Hazards
828
829
Handwashing is described as the single most
important practice for:
A.
Preventing the spread of HIV.
B.
Preventing the opportunistic infections.
C.
Sterile technique.
D.
Aseptic technique.
830
Handwashing is described as the single most
important practice for:
A.
Preventing the spread of HIV.
B.
Preventing the opportunistic infections.
C.
Sterile technique.
D.
Aseptic technique.
Karla delivers a meal try to Mrs. Garcia. She
831
moves Mrs. Garcia’s tissue box and
magazine to the bedside table. As Karla
leaves the room, what is the minimal hand
hygiene required?
A. None since Karla did not touch the
patient
B. Wash for two minutes with soap and
water
C. Wash hands using an antimicrobial
soap
D. Use alcohol-based handrub
Karla delivers a meal try to Mrs. Garcia. She
832
moves Mrs. Garcia’s tissue box and
magazine to the bedside table. As Karla
leaves the room, what is the minimal hand
hygiene required?
A. None since Karla did not touch the
patient
B. Wash for two minutes with soap and
water
C. Wash hands using an antimicrobial
soap
D. Use alcohol-based handrub
833
3. What is an example of a bloodborne
pathogen?
A.
Hepatitis C
B.
Sleeping sickness
C.
Yeast
D.
Vitamin A
834
3. What is an example of a bloodborne
pathogen?
A.
Hepatitis C
B.
Sleeping sickness
C.
Yeast
D.
Vitamin A
835
A dental assistant tears a glove when assisting a
dentist with a patient who is HIV positive. What
should the assistant do FIRST?
A.
Notify OSHA
B.
Report the incident to the CDC
C.
Remove the gloves and wash hands
D.
Put on a new pair of gloves
836
A dental assistant tears a glove when assisting a
dentist with a patient who is HIV positive. What
should the assistant do FIRST?
A.
Notify OSHA
B.
Report the incident to the CDC
C.
Remove the gloves and wash hands
D.
Put on a new pair of gloves
Daniella arrives to work at the nursing home at 7:00 AM. After
837
using the rest room, she takes the blood pressure and
temperature of eight patients, and then goes on break at 7:45
AM to eat her yogurt. How many times should Daniella have
practiced hand hygiene so far?
A. Seven (7)
B. Nine (9)
C. Eleven (11)
D. Nineteen (19)
Daniella arrives to work at the nursing home at 7:00 AM. After
838
using the rest room, she takes the blood pressure and
temperature of eight patients, and then goes on break at 7:45
AM to eat her yogurt. How many times should Daniella have
practiced hand hygiene so far?
A. Seven (7)
B. Nine (9)
C. Eleven (11)
D. Nineteen (19)
While observing good body mechanics, how839
should a radiologic technologist move a
portable x-ray machine to a patient’s room?
A. Stand 2 feet away from the machine and
push using the arm and back muscles.
B. Stand close to the machine and pull while
walking backwards.
C. Stand 2 feet away from the machine and
pull using the arm and leg muscles.
D. Stand close to the machine and push
using the weight of the body.
While observing good body mechanics, how840
should a radiologic technologist move a
portable x-ray machine to a patient’s room?
A. Stand 2 feet away from the machine and
push using the arm and back muscles.
B. Stand close to the machine and pull while
walking backwards.
C. Stand 2 feet away from the machine and
pull using the arm and leg muscles.
D. Stand close to the machine and push
using the weight of the body.
Darla is a medical office assistant and must take a
heavy box from the floor to the storage room. How
should she lift it?
841
A. Bend at the hips and knees with the back straight,
get close to the box, and lift using the leg
muscles.
B. Keep one leg straight and bend the other to get
close to the box, then lift while straightening the
bent leg and bending the straight leg.
C. Put a chair next to the box, kneel down, pick up
the box and place it on the chair. Then stand and
lift the box, holding it close to the chest.
D. Bend at the waist to pick up the box, and then
use the arm muscles to lift and bring the box
close in to the body.
Darla is a medical office assistant and must take a
heavy box from the floor to the storage room. How
should she lift it?
842
A. Bend at the hips and knees with the back
straight, get close to the box, and lift using
the leg muscles.
B. Keep one leg straight and bend the other to get
close to the box, then lift while straightening the
bent leg and bending the straight leg.
C. Put a chair next to the box, kneel down, pick up
the box and place it on the chair. Then stand and
lift the box, holding it close to the chest.
D. Bend at the waist to pick up the box, and then
use the arm muscles to lift and bring the box
close in to the body.
Diane and Elena work at a nursing home and have similar
patient care assignments. At the end of every shift, Diane843
is
tired and her back and shoulders ache, while Elena feels
pretty good. What MOST LIKEY causes the difference?
A. Elena must be much younger.
B. Elena must be much thinner.
C. Elena must use good body
mechanics.
D. Diane must work much harder.
Diane and Elena work at a nursing home and have similar
patient care assignments. At the end of every shift, Diane844
is
tired and her back and shoulders ache, while Elena feels
pretty good. What MOST LIKEY causes the difference?
A. Elena must be much younger.
B. Elena must be much thinner.
C. Elena must use good body
mechanics.
D. Diane must work much harder.
845
You are getting ready to move a patient up in bed, and your
supervisor tells you to broaden your base of support. You
should:
A. Bend at the knees.
B. Place your feet further apart.
C. Raise your arms up at your sides.
D. Lean up against the bed.
846
You are getting ready to move a patient up in bed, and your
supervisor tells you to broaden your base of support. You
should:
A. Bend at the knees.
B. Place your feet further apart.
C. Raise your arms up at your sides.
D. Lean up against the bed.
847
You are cleaning a patient’s dentures when some
of the soaking solution splashes into your eye.
What should you do FIRST?
A. Flush your eyes with water.
B. Call 911.
C. Notify your supervisor.
D. Complete an incident report
848
You are cleaning a patient’s dentures when some
of the soaking solution splashes into your eye.
What should you do FIRST?
A. Flush your eyes with water.
B. Call 911.
C. Notify your supervisor.
D. Complete an incident report
What should you place in a red bag with the words
“Biohazardous Waste” on the front of the bag?
A. Soiled bed linens
B. Patient’s clothes that are
stained with blood
C. A soiled dressing from a wound
D. A wet disposable baby diaper
849
What should you place in a red bag with the words
“Biohazardous Waste” on the front of the bag?
A. Soiled bed linens
B. Patient’s clothes that are
stained with blood
C. A soiled dressing from a wound
D. A wet disposable baby diaper
850
851
You should consult a Material Safety Data Sheet
to get information about cleaning up what type
of spill?
A. Blood
B. Chemical
C. Food
D. Bottle of pills
852
You should consult a Material Safety Data Sheet
to get information about cleaning up what type
of spill?
A. Blood
B. Chemical
C. Food
D. Bottle of pills
A computer in the medical records section of the hospital has
853
a frayed cord. What should the office manager do?
A. Replace the cord with a new one.
B. Wrap the cord with electrical tape.
C. Report the damage to the
manufacturer.
D. Report the damage to the hospital
administrator
A computer in the medical records section of the hospital has
854
a frayed cord. What should the office manager do?
A. Replace the cord with a new one.
B. Wrap the cord with electrical tape.
C. Report the damage to the
manufacturer.
D. Report the damage to the hospital
administrator
You are washing your hands and splash an ounce of water on
855
the floor. What should you do?
A. Call housekeeping to clean up the
spill.
B. Allow the water to evaporate.
C. Wipe up the spill and clean the area
with an approved floor cleaner.
D. Dry the spill with a paper towel and
re-wash your hands.
You are washing your hands and splash an ounce of water on
856
the floor. What should you do?
A. Call housekeeping to clean up the
spill.
B. Allow the water to evaporate.
C. Wipe up the spill and clean the area
with an approved floor cleaner.
D. Dry the spill with a paper towel
and re-wash your hands.
You are a medical assistant in an office
857
practice and have been asked to get Mrs.
James in room 6 to sign a consent form.
What should you do FIRST?
A. Ask Mrs. James to spell her full
name for you.
B. Explain the procedure needing
consent before you ask her to sign
the form.
C. Knock on the door before entering
the room.
D. Read the history and physical on
Mrs. James’ chart.
You are a medical assistant in an office
858
practice and have been asked to get Mrs.
James in room 6 to sign a consent form.
What should you do FIRST?
A. Ask Mrs. James to spell her full
name for you.
B. Explain the procedure needing
consent before you ask her to sign
the form.
C. Knock on the door before entering
the room.
D. Read the history and physical on
Mrs. James’ chart.
After caring for a resident in a nursing home, before leaving
the room the healthcare worker should:
A. Check to be sure the bed is in its
highest position.
B. Be sure the wheels on the bed are
not locked.
C. Pull the privacy curtains and place
the call bell on the bedside table.
D. Put the client’s phone, tissues and
glasses within easy reach.
859
After caring for a resident in a nursing home, before leaving
the room the healthcare worker should:
A. Check to be sure the bed is in its
highest position.
B. Be sure the wheels on the bed are
not locked.
C. Pull the privacy curtains and place
the call bell on the bedside table.
D. Put the client’s phone, tissues
and glasses within easy reach.
860
After ergonomics training, a healthcare worker should know
861
how to:
A. Prevent injuries in the work
environment.
B. Practice aseptic technique in a
specific work setting.
C. Read and understand Material
Safety Data Sheets.
D. Wear PPE.
After ergonomics training, a healthcare worker should know
862
how to:
A. Prevent injuries in the work
environment.
B. Practice aseptic technique in a
specific work setting.
C. Read and understand Material
Safety Data Sheets.
D. Wear PPE.
What does this symbol tell a healthcare
worker?
A. This is a
poison
B.
Practice standard
precautions
C. This item is sterile
D. Bloodborne
pathogen alert
863
What does this symbol tell a healthcare
worker?
A. This is a
poison
B. Practice standard
precautions
C. This item is sterile
D. Bloodborne
pathogen alert
864
You are working in a hospital when you hear
a patient in a room at the end of the hall865
call for help. What should you do FIRST?
A. Run to the room and offer
assistance.
B. Find your supervisor and tell him/her
what you heard.
C. Walk quickly to the room and assess
the situation.
D. Go to the nurse’s station, call the
room, and offer assistance.
You are working in a hospital when you hear
a patient in a room at the end of the hall866
call for help. What should you do FIRST?
A. Run to the room and offer
assistance.
B. Find your supervisor and tell him/her
what you heard.
C. Walk quickly to the room and assess
the situation.
D. Go to the nurse’s station, call the
room, and offer assistance.
You are working in a nursing home and have
867
been asked to take Mr. Arnold to recreational
therapy in a wheelchair. When you arrive in the
room, Mr. Arnold refuses to go. What should
you do?
A. Gently guide Mr. Arnold to sit in the
wheelchair.
B. Explain to Mr. Arnold that if he does not
do as you ask, he will never get better.
C. Ask why and then report Mr. Arnold’s
refusal to your supervisor.
D. Have Mr. Arnold sign an “Against Medical
Advice” refusal form.
You are working in a nursing home and have
868
been asked to take Mr. Arnold to recreational
therapy in a wheelchair. When you arrive in the
room, Mr. Arnold refuses to go. What should
you do?
A. Gently guide Mr. Arnold to sit in the
wheelchair.
B. Explain to Mr. Arnold that if he does not
do as you ask, he will never get better.
C. Ask why and then report Mr. Arnold’s
refusal to your supervisor.
D. Have Mr. Arnold sign an “Against Medical
Advice” refusal form.
Safety
Practices
7.5 Emergency
Procedures and Protocols
869
870
1. When preparing to use a fire extinguisher,
what must you do FIRST?
A.
Use a side-to-side sweeping motion.
B.
Pull the pin.
C.
Aim at the bottom and edge of the fire.
D.
Squeeze the handle.
871
1. When preparing to use a fire extinguisher,
what must you do FIRST?
A.
Use a side-to-side sweeping motion.
B.
Pull the pin.
C.
Aim at the bottom and edge of the fire.
D.
Squeeze the handle.
You are working alone in a medical laboratory when a large
872
machine sparks and then starts to flame up and spreads to
the cabinet and papers above. What should you do?
A.
Use a Class A extinguisher
B.
Use a Class C extinguisher
C.
Activate the fire alarm
D.
Evacuate the building
You are working alone in a medical laboratory when a large
873
machine sparks and then starts to flame up and spreads to
the cabinet and papers above. What should you do?
A.
Use a Class A extinguisher
B.
Use a Class C extinguisher
C.
Activate the fire alarm
D.
Evacuate the building
874
3.
What is inside a Class A extinguisher?
A.
Halon
B.
Carbon dioxide
C.
Hydrogen
D.
Water
875
3.
What is inside a Class A extinguisher?
A.
Halon
B.
Carbon dioxide
C.
Hydrogen
D.
Water
You are working in a dental laboratory on
the 4th floor of an office building when you
876
hear the fire alarm. What should you do?
A. Wait until you receive some indication
that this is a real fire and not a false
alarm.
B. Call the fire department.
C. Evacuate the building using the stairs.
D. Go to the office and gather up as many
records as possible and put them on a
cart to remove from the building in the
event there really is a fire.
You are working in a dental laboratory on
the 4th floor of an office building when you
877
hear the fire alarm. What should you do?
A. Wait until you receive some indication
that this is a real fire and not a false
alarm.
B. Call the fire department.
C. Evacuate the building using the stairs.
D. Go to the office and gather up as many
records as possible and put them on a
cart to remove from the building in the
event there really is a fire.
Which of the following is considered a fire hazard?
A. “No Smoking” sign on a room with
oxygen in use.
B. The use of an electrical blow dryer
in a hospital room.
C. Wheelchairs and stretchers
blocking a stairwell.
D. Waste materials disposed of in
metal containers.
878
Which of the following is considered a fire hazard?
A. “No Smoking” sign on a room with
oxygen in use.
B. The use of an electrical blow dryer
in a hospital room.
C. Wheelchairs and stretchers
blocking a stairwell.
D. Waste materials disposed of in
metal containers.
879
880
When using RACE acronym, what follows
“Activate alarm.”
A. Contain the fire.
B. Cut off oxygen supply.
C. Check for people in danger.
D. Call 911.
881
When using RACE acronym, what follows
“Activate alarm.”
A. Contain the fire.
B. Cut off oxygen supply.
C. Check for people in danger.
D. Call 911.
You are the first to arrive at the scene of a home where
a tornado touched down. You find one unconscious
882
victim inside, and notice that the roof in the room with
the victim looks unstable. What would you do?
A. Leave the house immediately and wait for
trained personnel to arrive.
B. Find something flat to place under the
victim, then stabilize the victim’s head,
neck and spine before attempting to
move the victim.
C. As quickly as possible, drag the victim to
a safer location.
D. Immobilize the victim’s head, neck and
back and stay with the victim until trained
personnel arrive.
You are the first to arrive at the scene of a home where
a tornado touched down. You find one unconscious
883
victim inside, and notice that the roof in the room with
the victim looks unstable. What would you do?
A. Leave the house immediately and wait for
trained personnel to arrive.
B. Find something flat to place under the
victim, then stabilize the victim’s head,
neck and spine before attempting to
move the victim.
C. As quickly as possible, drag the victim to
a safer location.
D. Immobilize the victim’s head, neck and
back and stay with the victim until trained
personnel arrive.
You are driving down the road and come upon an overturned
bus. When you call 911 on your cell phone, what should you
884
be prepared to tell the 911 operator?
A. The name of the bus company.
B. Your name, age and credentials.
C. The number of victims and a
description of their injuries.
D. Your location and the approximate
number of victims.
You are driving down the road and come upon an overturned
bus. When you call 911 on your cell phone, what should you
885
be prepared to tell the 911 operator?
A. The name of the bus company.
B. Your name, age and credentials.
C. The number of victims and a
description of their injuries.
D. Your location and the approximate
number of victims.
A hospice nurse brings an oxygen tank to a patient. What886
would the nurse tell the patient not to use when the oxygen is
in use?
A. Hand lotion or sunscreen
B. A battery operated radio
C. Alcohol or nail polish
D. The TV remote
A hospice nurse brings an oxygen tank to a patient. What887
would the nurse tell the patient not to use when the oxygen is
in use?
A. Hand lotion or sunscreen
B. A battery operated radio
C. Alcohol or nail polish
D. The TV remote
What is bioterrorism?
A. The threat of leaks or destruction to
a nuclear plant.
B. The use of microbes for industrial
waste disposal.
C. The threat of using harmful gasses
during a war to paralyze the
opposition.
D. The use of microorganisms as
weapons to infect humans.
888
What is bioterrorism?
A. The threat of leaks or destruction to
a nuclear plant.
B. The use of microbes for industrial
waste disposal.
C. The threat of using harmful gasses
during a war to paralyze the
opposition.
D. The use of microorganisms as
weapons to infect humans.
889
890
Teamwork
Which of the following is the BEST example of a hospital
interdisciplinary team?
A.
Housekeeping staff
B.
Pharmacy staff
C.
Emergency department staff
D.
Morgue staff
891
Which of the following is the BEST example of a hospital
interdisciplinary team?
A.
Housekeeping staff
B.
Pharmacy staff
C.
Emergency department staff
D.
Morgue staff
892
What group of healthcare workers would MOST
893
LIKELY be part of a rehabilitation team?
A. Social worker, physical therapist,
occupational therapist, physician
B. Nurse, physical therapist, paramedic,
perfusionist
C. Biomedical equipment technician,
occupational therapist, physician,
paramedic
D. Social worker, nurse, perfusionist,
biomedical equipment technician
What group of healthcare workers would MOST
894
LIKELY be part of a rehabilitation team?
A. Social worker, physical therapist,
occupational therapist, physician
B. Nurse, physical therapist, paramedic,
perfusionist
C. Biomedical equipment technician,
occupational therapist, physician,
paramedic
D. Social worker, nurse, perfusionist,
biomedical equipment technician
A hospitalized patient is introduced to Dr. Leila
895
Azzi as “an intern on my team” by the attending
physician. As an intern, Dr. Azzi:
A. Is still in medical school and cannot
participate in patient care.
B. Performs the skill of a doctor under the
supervision of the attending physician.
C. Has all the rights and privileges of any
physician on the hospital medical staff.
D. Functions as an independent healthcare
provider who is employed by the attending
physician.
A hospitalized patient is introduced to Dr. Leila
896
Azzi as “an intern on my team” by the attending
physician. As an intern, Dr. Azzi:
A. Is still in medical school and cannot
participate in patient care.
B. Performs the skill of a doctor under the
supervision of the attending physician.
C. Has all the rights and privileges of any
physician on the hospital medical staff.
D. Functions as an independent healthcare
provider who is employed by the attending
physician.
897
In following the chain of command, the dental assistant works
under the direction of the:
A.
Patient.
B.
Billing clerk.
C.
Dental hygienist.
D.
Dentist.
898
In following the chain of command, the dental assistant works
under the direction of the:
A.
Patient.
B.
Billing clerk.
C.
Dental hygienist.
D.
Dentist.
The team member who contributes the MOST to team
effectiveness is one who:
A. Does exactly what is expected of
him/her.
B. Treats others with cool courtesy.
C. Is open-minded and willing to
compromise.
D. Stays focused on his/her
assignments and not what others
are doing.
899
The team member who contributes the MOST to team
effectiveness is one who:
A. Does exactly what is expected of
him/her.
B. Treats others with cool courtesy.
C. Is open-minded and willing to
compromise.
D. Stays focused on his/her
assignments and not what others
are doing.
900
Steve is a good role model for Leslie because he:
A. Earns over $50,000 a year.
B. Only complains about his boss to
his family.
C. Likes to rush to get the job done as
quickly as possible.
D. Is respectful of his co-workers and
patients
901
Steve is a good role model for Leslie because he:
A. Earns over $50,000 a year.
B. Only complains about his boss to
his family.
C. Likes to rush to get the job done as
quickly as possible.
D. Is respectful of his co-workers
and patients
902
A charge nurse is described by a nursing
assistant as being an effective leader. What903
example by the charge nurse would support
this description?
A. He pitches in and helps the nursing
assistants when things are really busy.
B. He has a good sense of humor and
makes light of stressful situations.
C. He makes sure that the assistants who
have worked for him the longest get the
easier assignments.
D. He compliments the younger nurses on
their appearance.
A charge nurse is described by a nursing
assistant as being an effective leader. What904
example by the charge nurse would support
this description?
A. He pitches in and helps the nursing
assistants when things are really busy.
B. He has a good sense of humor and
makes light of stressful situations.
C. He makes sure that the assistants who
have worked for him the longest get the
easier assignments.
D. He compliments the younger nurses on
their appearance.
905
Carlos likes to make all the decisions for his team
and do most of the work himself. His leadership
style is described as:
A. Democratic.
B. Passive.
C. Laissez-faire.
D. Autocratic.
906
Carlos likes to make all the decisions for his team
and do most of the work himself. His leadership
style is described as:
A. Democratic.
B. Passive.
C. Laissez-faire.
D. Autocratic.
An effective group facilitator should:
A. Try to persuade the group to
make the decision that he/she wants.
B. Involve all members of the group in
the decision-making process.
C. Use an autocratic leadership style.
D. Do most of the work for the group to
achieve their goals.
907
An effective group facilitator should:
A. Try to persuade the group to
make the decision that he/she wants.
B. Involve all members of the group
in the decision-making process.
C. Use an autocratic leadership style.
D. Do most of the work for the group to
achieve their goals.
908
909
Miranda prefers to work using a Laissez-faire
leadership style. What career might be best
suited for Miranda?
A. Paramedic
B. Neurosurgeon
C. Massage therapist
D. Operating room technician
910
Miranda prefers to work using a Laissez-faire
leadership style. What career might be best
suited for Miranda?
A. Paramedic
B. Neurosurgeon
C. Massage therapist
D. Operating room technician
The other EMTs describe Ben as a good team member
because he is highly skilled and:
A. Does his fair share of the work.
B. Takes credit for the work of the
team.
C. Likes to do things the way he has
always done them.
D. Participates in activities with coworkers after work.
911
The other EMTs describe Ben as a good team member
because he is highly skilled and:
A. Does his fair share of the work.
B. Takes credit for the work of the
team.
C. Likes to do things the way he has
always done them.
D. Participates in activities with coworkers after work.
912
An athletic trainer is frustrated with the constant criticism she
receives from the head trainer. What should she do?
A. Stand up to the trainer the next
time she is criticized.
B. Ask for a private meeting to discuss
her concerns.
C. Keep her feelings to herself and
accept the head trainer’s authority.
D. Report the trainer’s behavior to
his/her supervisor.
913
An athletic trainer is frustrated with the constant criticism she
receives from the head trainer. What should she do?
A. Stand up to the trainer the next
time she is criticized.
B. Ask for a private meeting to
discuss her concerns.
C. Keep her feelings to herself and
accept the head trainer’s authority.
D. Report the trainer’s behavior to
his/her supervisor.
914
A medical office is aware that their average
915
patient wait time is 20 minutes. What might be
their BEST strategy for beginning to address the
problem?
A. Let the physician who owns the medical
office offer a solution.
B. Have a team meeting to gather different
ideas for solving the problem.
C. Survey the patients to determine if they
mind waiting for 20 minutes.
D. Pay for a professional consulting company
to analyze the office efficiency procedures.
A medical office is aware that their average
916
patient wait time is 20 minutes. What might be
their BEST strategy for beginning to address the
problem?
A. Let the physician who owns the medical
office offer a solution.
B. Have a team meeting to gather different
ideas for solving the problem.
C. Survey the patients to determine if they
mind waiting for 20 minutes.
D. Pay for a professional consulting company
to analyze the office efficiency procedures.
Belle is a pharmacy assistant. What does Belle have the
“right” to do?
A. Take her scheduled break for
personal reasons.
B. Refuse to perform tasks she does
not like to perform.
C. Take a coffee break whenever she
is not checking out a customer.
D. Have social conversations with her
friends while she is working.
917
Belle is a pharmacy assistant. What does Belle have the
“right” to do?
A. Take her scheduled break for
personal reasons.
B. Refuse to perform tasks she does
not like to perform.
C. Take a coffee break whenever she
is not checking out a customer.
D. Have social conversations with her
friends while she is working.
918
What example would BEST lead to finding a win-win solution?
A. Flipping a coin
B. Voting
C. Letting the person with the most
power in the relationship make the
decision
D. Discussion that leads to a mutual
decision
919
What example would BEST lead to finding a win-win solution?
A. Flipping a coin
B. Voting
C. Letting the person with the most
power in the relationship make the
decision
D. Discussion that leads to a mutual
decision
920
Beth is a basketball player who is constantly criticizing
and insulting other team members. When her
921
teammates bring this to her attention, Beth responds “I
have the right to say how I feel.” Does she?
A. Yes. Beth is being open and honest with
her teammates.
B. Yes. Freedom of speech means that Beth
can say whatever she wants.
C. No. Beth’s behavior violates the rights of
her teammates to a positive athletic
environment.
D. No. Nobody has the right to complain all
the time
Beth is a basketball player who is constantly criticizing
and insulting other team members. When her
922
teammates bring this to her attention, Beth responds “I
have the right to say how I feel.” Does she?
A. Yes. Beth is being open and honest with
her teammates.
B. Yes. Freedom of speech means that Beth
can say whatever she wants.
C. No. Beth’s behavior violates the rights of
her teammates to a positive athletic
environment.
D. No. Nobody has the right to complain all
the time
Peggy is a dental hygienist. Does she have a
right to wear a generous amount of perfume923at
work?
A. No. The strong odor could violate
her patient’s rights.
B. No. Healthcare workers should
never wear perfume, after shave, or
anything similar.
C. Yes. Perfume creates a pleasant
smell for patients.
D. Yes. She has the right to wear
whatever she wants.
Peggy is a dental hygienist. Does she have a
right to wear a generous amount of perfume924at
work?
A. No. The strong odor could violate
her patient’s rights.
B. No. Healthcare workers should
never wear perfume, after shave, or
anything similar.
C. Yes. Perfume creates a pleasant
smell for patients.
D. Yes. She has the right to wear
whatever she wants.
Mallory and Ashli are best friends and both
925
want to run for president of their HOSA
chapter. After sharing their feelings with
each other, Mallory decides that Ashli would
make a better president and she would be
just as happy working with a committee, so
they decide that Ashli will run for president
and Mallory will be her campaign manager.
This is an example of a:
A. Sacrifice.
B. Compromise.
C. Win-lose.
D. Win-win.
Mallory and Ashli are best friends and both
926
want to run for president of their HOSA
chapter. After sharing their feelings with
each other, Mallory decides that Ashli would
make a better president and she would be
just as happy working with a committee, so
they decide that Ashli will run for president
and Mallory will be her campaign manager.
This is an example of a:
A. Sacrifice.
B. Compromise.
C. Win-lose.
D. Win-win.
Marie likes to choose her conflicts wisely. Which
conflict below should Maria choose to do 927
something about?
A. She sees another student take
something out of a friend’s purse.
B. She hears other students complaining about
her favorite teacher.
C. The person in front of her in the lunch line
takes the last slice of chocolate cake.
D. Her teacher says “Maria, stop
daydreaming” and she was not
daydreaming.
Marie likes to choose her conflicts wisely. Which
conflict below should Maria choose to do 928
something about?
A. She sees another student take
something out of a friend’s purse.
B. She hears other students complaining about
her favorite teacher.
C. The person in front of her in the lunch line
takes the last slice of chocolate cake.
D. Her teacher says “Maria, stop
daydreaming” and she was not
daydreaming.
What is the MOST important key to resolving a conflict?
A. Ask others for information about
the people involved in the conflict
B. Give the other person the benefit
of the doubt
C. Communication
D. Forgiveness
929
What is the MOST important key to resolving a conflict?
A. Ask others for information about
the people involved in the conflict
B. Give the other person the benefit
of the doubt
C. Communication
D. Forgiveness
930
931
Assertive communication requires respecting the
rights of others, but also
A.
speaking in a loud voice.
B.
standing up for your beliefs.
C.
keeping arms crossed.
D.
avoiding eye contact.
932
Assertive communication requires respecting the
rights of others, but also
A.
speaking in a loud voice.
B.
standing up for your beliefs.
C.
keeping arms crossed.
D.
avoiding eye contact.
In order to communicate effectively about
933
differences of opinions with a co-worker, the
health care professional should
A. consult his/her superior on the right
course of action.
B. consult a co-worker not involved in the
situation.
C. arrange a suitable time and place to
discuss the issue with co-worker.
D. attack the person so that they will
agree with you.
In order to communicate effectively about
934
differences of opinions with a co-worker, the
health care professional should
A. consult his/her superior on the right
course of action.
B. consult a co-worker not involved in the
situation.
C. arrange a suitable time and place to
discuss the issue with co-worker.
D. attack the person so that they will
agree with you.
Staff meetings provide an opportunity to
A.
process.
share ideas and contribute to the
B.
air out differences while all co-workers
are present to observe.
C.
discuss personal problems.
D.
stay silent and listen attentively to your
manager.
935
Staff meetings provide an opportunity to
A.
process.
share ideas and contribute to the
B.
air out differences while all co-workers
are present to observe.
C.
discuss personal problems.
D.
stay silent and listen attentively to your
manager.
936
Which of the following is a real benefit of working in a team?
A.
they can rely on other team members
B.
C.
If something goes wrong, multiple
people share responsibility.
Multiple views can make problems
easier to solve.
An individual can do less work because
D.
Differences of opinion can lead to
intense arguments.
937
Which of the following is a real benefit of working in a team?
A.
they can rely on other team members
B.
C.
If something goes wrong, multiple
people share responsibility.
Multiple views can make problems
easier to solve.
An individual can do less work because
D.
Differences of opinion can lead to
intense arguments.
938
Nurse Elexa has concerns about the new electronic charting
system and has an idea about how to make it more easy 939
to
use. During the discussion the manager is reading a magazine
and never looks at Nurse Elexa. Which communication failure
is the manager most likely having?
A.
Failure to cooperate.
B.
Failure to have a positive attitude.
C.
Failure to exercise an open-mind.
D.
Failure to listen carefully.
Nurse Elexa has concerns about the new electronic charting
system and has an idea about how to make it more easy 940
to
use. During the discussion the manager is reading a magazine
and never looks at Nurse Elexa. Which communication failure
is the manager most likely having?
A.
Failure to cooperate.
B.
Failure to have a positive attitude.
C.
Failure to exercise an open-mind.
D.
Failure to listen carefully.
941
Health
Maintenance
942
A man who controls his stress, exercises regularly,
and decreases the amount of fat and salt in his
diet will likely decrease his:
A.
Energy levels.
B.
Sleep needs.
C.
Blood pressure.
D.
Risk of skin cancer.
943
A man who controls his stress, exercises regularly,
and decreases the amount of fat and salt in his
diet will likely decrease his:
A.
Energy levels.
B.
Sleep needs.
C.
Blood pressure.
D.
Risk of skin cancer.
944
Thiamine, niacin and folic acid are examples of:
A.
Organic minerals.
B.
Inorganic minerals.
C.
Fat-soluble vitamins.
D.
Water-soluble vitamins.
945
Thiamine, niacin and folic acid are examples of:
A.
Organic minerals.
B.
Inorganic minerals.
C.
Fat-soluble vitamins.
D.
Water-soluble vitamins.
946
What body process is improved by the intake of
cellulose in the diet?
A.
Digestion
B.
Respiration
C.
Urination
D.
Circulation
947
What body process is improved by the intake of
cellulose in the diet?
A.
Digestion
B.
Respiration
C.
Urination
D.
Circulation
948
Chicken is an example of:
A.
An amino acid.
B.
Folic acid.
C.
An incomplete protein.
D.
A complete protein
949
Chicken is an example of:
A.
An amino acid.
B.
Folic acid.
C.
An incomplete protein.
D.
A complete protein
Kim purchases a bag of mini
Toblerone bars and in the course of a
day, eats 10 bars. How many calories
did she consume?
A. 600
B.
C. 1038
D. 1200
667
950
Kim purchases a bag of mini
Toblerone bars and in the course of a
day, eats 10 bars. How many calories
did she consume?
A. 600
B.
C. 1038
D. 1200
667
951
952
Choose MyPlate recommends that you make half
your plate:
A. Meat and beans.
B. Milk and dairy products.
C. Fruits and vegetables.
D. Whole grains.
953
Choose MyPlate recommends that you make half
your plate:
A. Meat and beans.
B. Milk and dairy products.
C. Fruits and vegetables.
D. Whole grains.
954
Barry suffers from sleep apnea, which is MOST
LIKELY caused by:
A. Obesity.
B. Dehydration.
C. Stress.
D. Caffeine.
955
Barry suffers from sleep apnea, which is MOST
LIKELY caused by:
A. Obesity.
B. Dehydration.
C. Stress.
D. Caffeine.
956
Carla has a BMI of 31. She would be classified as:
A. Underweight.
B. Healthy weight.
C. Overweight.
D. Obese.
957
Carla has a BMI of 31. She would be classified as:
A. Underweight.
B. Healthy weight.
C. Overweight.
D. Obese.
958
What is the MAIN cause of obesity?
A. Excess calorie food consumption.
B. Increase in the use of technology.
C. Fast food restaurants.
D. Lack of sidewalks and parks in
most neighborhoods.
959
What is the MAIN cause of obesity?
A. Excess calorie food consumption.
B. Increase in the use of technology.
C. Fast food restaurants.
D. Lack of sidewalks and parks in
most neighborhoods.
960
Angie is 35 years old. She runs two miles a day and eats a
healthy diet. What should she add to her routine to increase
her strength and build stronger bones?
A. A weekly massage
B. Aerobics three times a week
C. Weight lifting two days a week
D. Vitamin C and iodine supplements
961
Angie is 35 years old. She runs two miles a day and eats a
healthy diet. What should she add to her routine to increase
her strength and build stronger bones?
A. A weekly massage
B. Aerobics three times a week
C. Weight lifting two days a week
D. Vitamin C and iodine supplements
Robert goes to the gym every day after work from 4-5 pm,
962
drinks coffee with breakfast and lunch, goes to bed at 9 pm
every evening, and plays video games for one hour before
turning out the light for sleep. What is causing him to have
trouble falling asleep?
A. His exercise routine
B. Coffee
C. His bedtime
D. Video games
Robert goes to the gym every day after work from 4-5 pm,
963
drinks coffee with breakfast and lunch, goes to bed at 9 pm
every evening, and plays video games for one hour before
turning out the light for sleep. What is causing him to have
trouble falling asleep?
A. His exercise routine
B. Coffee
C. His bedtime
D. Video games
964
Adults need 6-9 hours of sleep each night, but
how much sleep per night is recommended for
high school students?
A. Under 6 hours
B. 7 hours
C. 9 hours
D. 11 hours
965
Adults need 6-9 hours of sleep each night, but
how much sleep per night is recommended for
high school students?
A. Under 6 hours
B. 7 hours
C. 9 hours
D. 11 hours
966
The American Cancer Society recommends that
at age 50, all Americans should have what type
of screening exam?
A. Brain scan
B. Colonoscopy
C. Mammogram
D. Chest x-ray
967
The American Cancer Society recommends that
at age 50, all Americans should have what type
of screening exam?
A. Brain scan
B. Colonoscopy
C. Mammogram
D. Chest x-ray
968
What is the most effective strategy for the
prevention of gum disease?
A. Annual dental x-rays
B. Using Crest toothpaste
C. Changing your toothbrush every
three months
D. Nightly dental flossing
969
What is the most effective strategy for the
prevention of gum disease?
A. Annual dental x-rays
B. Using Crest toothpaste
C. Changing your toothbrush every
three months
D. Nightly dental flossing
Beth is a 47 year-old first grade teacher and wants to stay
970
healthy. What disease-prevention strategy would be the
MOST helpful?
A. Screening for genetic diseases
B. Decreasing her stress
C. Repeating childhood
immunizations
D. Changing from regular cigarettes
to light cigarettes
Beth is a 47 year-old first grade teacher and wants to stay
971
healthy. What disease-prevention strategy would be the
MOST helpful?
A. Screening for genetic diseases
B. Decreasing her stress
C. Repeating childhood
immunizations
D. Changing from regular cigarettes
to light cigarettes
Alternative medical therapies are:
A. New methods of medical care using
technology.
B. Always safe but not always effective.
C. Not traditionally performed in
conventional medical practices.
D. Less expensive and more effective
than conventional medical practices.
972
Alternative medical therapies are:
A. New methods of medical care using
technology.
B. Always safe but not always effective.
C. Not traditionally performed in
conventional medical practices.
D. Less expensive and more effective
than conventional medical practices.
973
974
Margie suffers from tension headaches and prefers not to take
drugs or similar products. What complementary therapy MOST
LIKELY would her doctor recommend to treat her headaches?
A. Aromatherapy
B. Homeopathy
C. Botanical medicine
D. Reflexology
975
Margie suffers from tension headaches and prefers not to take
drugs or similar products. What complementary therapy MOST
LIKELY would her doctor recommend to treat her headaches?
A. Aromatherapy
B. Homeopathy
C. Botanical medicine
D. Reflexology
976
The focus of treatment using reflexology focuses
on what body part?
A. Head
B. Hands
C. Back
D. Feet
977
The focus of treatment using reflexology focuses
on what body part?
A. Head
B. Hands
C. Back
D. Feet
978
What complementary professional is MOST similar
to a conventional medical doctor?
A. Massage therapist
B. Chiropractor
C. Acupuncturist
D. Osteopath
979
What complementary professional is MOST similar
to a conventional medical doctor?
A. Massage therapist
B. Chiropractor
C. Acupuncturist
D. Osteopath
Darla’s doctor explains to Darla that she must take
980
responsibility for her own health, reduce her stress, and
improve her attitude about life. What approach to medicine
is Darla’s doctor taking?
A. Holistic
B. Biomedical
C. Chiropractic
D. Botanical
Darla’s doctor explains to Darla that she must take
981
responsibility for her own health, reduce her stress, and
improve her attitude about life. What approach to medicine
is Darla’s doctor taking?
A. Holistic
B. Biomedical
C. Chiropractic
D. Botanical
According to the World Health Organization (WHO), being
982
overweight or obese is a major risk factor for which type of
diseases?
A. Chronic diseases like diabetes.
B. Sexually Transmitted diseases
like Gonorrhea.
C. Oral diseases like gum disease.
D. Auditory diseases like hearing
loss.
According to the World Health Organization (WHO), being
983
overweight or obese is a major risk factor for which type of
diseases?
A. Chronic diseases like diabetes.
B. Sexually Transmitted diseases
like Gonorrhea.
C. Oral diseases like gum disease.
D. Auditory diseases like hearing
loss.
Healthyamericans.org and their F as in Fat
984
report indicates that the as of 2011, twelve
states have the highest percentages of
obesity at
A. greater than 50% of the state
population.
B. between 30 and 40% of the state
population.
C. between 20 and 30% of the state
population.
D. between 10 and 20% of the state
population.
Healthyamericans.org and their F as in Fat
985
report indicates that the as of 2011, twelve
states have the highest percentages of
obesity at
A. greater than 50% of the state
population.
B. between 30 and 40% of the state
population.
C. between 20 and 30% of the state
population.
D. between 10 and 20% of the state
population.
Bob is physically active and burns 3000 calories a day, but he
986
only takes in 2100 calories a day. Generally speaking, how
long will it take Bob to lose one pound of body weight?
A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 4 days
D. 8 days
Bob is physically active and burns 3000 calories a day, but he
987
only takes in 2100 calories a day. Generally speaking, how
long will it take Bob to lose one pound of body weight?
A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 4 days
D. 8 days
Someone who has a psychosomatic illness is described as
someone who
A. acquired their illness in a hospital
or health care facility.
B. has physical symptoms that are
caused by what it happening in the
mind.
C. develops a disease that results from
their compromised immune system.
D. pretends to be sick in order to get
drugs or attention.
988
Someone who has a psychosomatic illness is described as
someone who
A. acquired their illness in a hospital
or health care facility.
B. has physical symptoms that are
caused by what it happening in the
mind.
C. develops a disease that results from
their compromised immune system.
D. pretends to be sick in order to get
drugs or attention.
989
990
Nutrition Facts on food labels list total fat, cholesterol and
sodium, which should be consumed less often than vitamins
and daily values are always based on a
A. 1000 calorie diet.
B. 1500 calorie diet.
C. 2000 calorie diet.
D. 2500 calorie diet.
991
Nutrition Facts on food labels list total fat, cholesterol and
sodium, which should be consumed less often than vitamins
and daily values are always based on a
A. 1000 calorie diet.
B. 1500 calorie diet.
C. 2000 calorie diet.
D. 2500 calorie diet.
992
Technical
Vital
Skills
signs
A nursing assistant notes a patient’s blood993
pressure to be 148/96. Which is the BEST
action the assistant can take?
A. Tell the patient the blood pressure
reading.
B. Report the reading to the patient’s
nurse.
C. Wait 15 minutes and repeat the
procedure.
D. Immediately repeat the procedure in
the other arm.
A nursing assistant notes a patient’s blood994
pressure to be 148/96. Which is the BEST
action the assistant can take?
A. Tell the patient the blood pressure
reading.
B. Report the reading to the patient’s
nurse.
C. Wait 15 minutes and repeat the
procedure.
D. Immediately repeat the procedure in
the other arm.
You were assigned to take vital signs on an 80-year-old male
nursing home resident who was recently admitted after 995
having a stroke. Vital signs were B/P 130/90, T 99 .40 F, P 92, R
32. Which vital sign reflects a measurement within normal
limits?
A.
Blood pressure
B.
Pulse
C.
Respirations
D.
Temperature
You were assigned to take vital signs on an 80-year-old male
nursing home resident who was recently admitted after 996
having a stroke. Vital signs were B/P 130/90, T 99 .40 F, P 92, R
32. Which vital sign reflects a measurement within normal
limits?
A.
Blood pressure
B.
Pulse
C.
Respirations
D.
Temperature
Of the following, which person is MOST likely to
997
develop hypertension based on risk factors?
A. Underweight 12-year-old Indian
female student
B. Obese 40-year-old African American
male smoker
C. 30-year-old Asian male distance runner
who works as an air traffic controller
D. 45-year-old Caucasian mother of
triplets who is on a low carbohydrate
diet
Of the following, which person is MOST likely to
998
develop hypertension based on risk factors?
A. Underweight 12-year-old Indian
female student
B. Obese 40-year-old African American
male smoker
C. 30-year-old Asian male distance runner
who works as an air traffic controller
D. 45-year-old Caucasian mother of
triplets who is on a low carbohydrate
diet
999
Which patient is the BEST candidate for an oral temperature?
A.
1-year-old healthy infant
B.
16-year-old receiving his annual
physical exam
C.
precautions
21-year-old patient on seizure
D.
62-year-old comatose patient
1000
Which patient is the BEST candidate for an oral temperature?
A.
1-year-old healthy infant
B.
16-year-old receiving his annual
physical exam
C.
precautions
21-year-old patient on seizure
D.
62-year-old comatose patient
1001
A patient with tachycardia MOST likely has a/an:
A. Elevated temperature.
B. Elevated blood pressure.
C. Fast pulse.
D.
Increased respiratory rate.
1002
A patient with tachycardia MOST likely has a/an:
A. Elevated temperature.
B. Elevated blood pressure.
C. Fast pulse.
D.
Increased respiratory rate.
1003
The LEAST accurate route for measuring
temperature is:
A. Aural..
B. Axillary.
C. Oral.
D. Rectal.
1004
The LEAST accurate route for measuring
temperature is:
A. Aural..
B. Axillary.
C. Oral.
D. Rectal.
1005
Which is considered to be an elevated
temperature?
A. Aural 37.2 C
B. Axillary 38.4 C
C. Oral 37 C
D. Rectal 37.8 C
1006
Which is considered to be an elevated
temperature?
A. Aural 37.2 C
B. Axillary 38.4 C
C. Oral 37 C
D. Rectal 37.8 C
1007
What is the respiratory rate of a patient who is
observed to have 16 inspirations and 16
expirations?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
1008
What is the respiratory rate of a patient who is
observed to have 16 inspirations and 16
expirations?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
1009
In a blood pressure measurement of 132/86, the
number 86 is the:
A. Bradycardia.
B. Tachycardia.
C. Diastolic.
D. Systolic.
1010
In a blood pressure measurement of 132/86, the
number 86 is the:
A. Bradycardia.
B. Tachycardia.
C. Diastolic.
D. Systolic.
1011
Before taking vital signs on a patient, what should
you do FIRST?
A. Close the privacy curtain.
B. Explain the procedure.
C. Introduce yourself.
D. Place the call bell within reach.
1012
Before taking vital signs on a patient, what should
you do FIRST?
A. Close the privacy curtain.
B. Explain the procedure.
C. Introduce yourself.
D. Place the call bell within reach.
1013
In order to avoid errors, whose approved list of
abbreviations should you use when documenting
vital signs?
A. American Medical Association
B. Health Science textbook
C. Board of Nursing
D. Your employer
1014
In order to avoid errors, whose approved list of
abbreviations should you use when documenting
vital signs?
A. American Medical Association
B. Health Science textbook
C. Board of Nursing
D. Your employer
1015
How does the pulse rate and respiratory rate of a
healthy toddler compare to that of a healthy 21year-old?
A. Higher pulse, equal respirations
B. Lower pulse, lower respirations
C. Lower pulse, lower respirations
D. Higher pulse, higher respirations
1016
How does the pulse rate and respiratory rate of a
healthy toddler compare to that of a healthy 21year-old?
A. Higher pulse, equal respirations
B. Lower pulse, lower respirations
C. Lower pulse, lower respirations
D. Higher pulse, higher
respirations
1017
The terms, weak and thready, are MOST usually
associated with which vital sign measurement?
A. Blood pressure
B. Pulse
C. Respirations
D. Temperature
1018
The terms, weak and thready, are MOST usually
associated with which vital sign measurement?
A. Blood pressure
B. Pulse
C. Respirations
D. Temperature
1019
The terms, deep or shallow, are MOST usually
associated with which vital sign measurement?
A. Blood pressure
B. Pulse
C. Respirations
D. Temperature
1020
The terms, deep or shallow, are MOST usually
associated with which vital sign measurement?
A. Blood pressure
B. Pulse
C. Respirations
D. Temperature
1021
Which thermometer requires it be “shaken
down”?
A. Digital
B. Electronic
C. Glass
D. Tympanic
1022
Which thermometer requires it be “shaken
down”?
A. Digital
B. Electronic
C. Glass
D. Tympanic
1023
In which procedure is lubricant required?
A. Aural temperature
B. Rectal temperature
C. Blood pressure
D. Pulse/respirations
1024
In which procedure is lubricant required?
A. Aural temperature
B. Rectal temperature
C. Blood pressure
D. Pulse/respirations
1025
A febrile patient will exhibit a/an:
A. Elevated pulse.
B. Elevated temperature.
C. Normal pulse.
D. Normal temperature.
1026
A febrile patient will exhibit a/an:
A. Elevated pulse.
B. Elevated temperature.
C. Normal pulse.
D. Normal temperature.
When taking a pulse, why should the thumb
1027
NOT be used?
A. The width of the thumb impedes an
accurate feel for the pulse.
B. The thumb has a pulse and can be
confused with the patient’s pulse.
C. The sensation of the thumb is not as
good as it is in the middle two
fingers.
D. There is more dexterity in the fingers
than there is in the thumb.
When taking a pulse, why should the thumb
1028
NOT be used?
A. The width of the thumb impedes an
accurate feel for the pulse.
B. The thumb has a pulse and can be
confused with the patient’s pulse.
C. The sensation of the thumb is not as
good as it is in the middle two
fingers.
D. There is more dexterity in the fingers
than there is in the thumb.
Which statement about the size of a blood
1029
pressure cuff is TRUE?
A. The bladder of the cuff needs to
cover about 80% of the
circumference of the arm.
B. Cuffs should cover about 80% of
the length of the upper arm.
C. Blood pressure cuffs are indicated
by the age of the patient.
D. Except for infant cuffs, all adults use
the same size cuff.
Which statement about the size of a blood
1030
pressure cuff is TRUE?
A. The bladder of the cuff needs to
cover about 80% of the
circumference of the arm.
B. Cuffs should cover about 80% of
the length of the upper arm.
C. Blood pressure cuffs are indicated
by the age of the patient.
D. Except for infant cuffs, all adults use
the same size cuff.
1031
First
Aid
Which statement about responding to an
emergency is TRUE?
A. Once the scene is considered safe, it is okay to
move a patient before administering first aid.
B.
When approaching a conscious victim, identify
yourself and express your intent to provide
assistance.
1032
C. Good Samaritan Laws are the same in each
state
and can be used in all emergencies.
D. Medic Alert bracelets and necklaces are not
considered important in most emergencies.
Which statement about responding to an
emergency is TRUE?
A. Once the scene is considered safe, it is okay to
move a patient before administering first aid.
B.
When approaching a conscious victim, identify
yourself and express your intent to provide
assistance.
1033
C. Good Samaritan Laws are the same in each
state
and can be used in all emergencies.
D. Medic Alert bracelets and necklaces are not
considered important in most emergencies.
Which of the following indicates a life-threatening
emergency?
A.
can wiggle toes
B.
C.
Bright red bleeding from the neck which
is spurting
Alert victim complaining of pain in the
jaw and a nosebleed.
A red, swollen and painful ankle, victim
D.
A burn on the forearm which is
moderately red, but not blistered
1034
Which of the following indicates a life-threatening
emergency?
A.
can wiggle toes
B.
C.
Bright red bleeding from the neck which
is spurting
Alert victim complaining of pain in the
jaw and a nosebleed.
A red, swollen and painful ankle, victim
D.
A burn on the forearm which is
moderately red, but not blistered
1035
1036
The BEST reason for immobilizing a
broken bone is to:
A.
Assist with walking.
B.
Decrease swelling.
C.
Prevent further injury.
D.
Reduce pain
1037
The BEST reason for immobilizing a
broken bone is to:
A.
Assist with walking.
B.
Decrease swelling.
C.
Prevent further injury.
D.
Reduce pain
1038
After making sure the scene is safe, what should be the NEXT
action when approaching a victim found to be lying on the
floor?
A.
Check to see if the victim is responsive.
B.
Begin giving ventilations to the victim.
C.
Call 9-1-1.
D.
Call your doctor
1039
After making sure the scene is safe, what should be the NEXT
action when approaching a victim found to be lying on the
floor?
A.
Check to see if the victim is responsive.
B.
Begin giving ventilations to the victim.
C.
Call 9-1-1.
D.
Call your doctor
Which of the following are MOST likely signs of inadequate
1040
circulation?
A. Coughing and talking
B. Bruising of the extremities
C. Reddish tint near the affected injury
D. Bluish color around the nose and
mouth
Which of the following are MOST likely signs of inadequate
1041
circulation?
A. Coughing and talking
B. Bruising of the extremities
C. Reddish tint near the affected injury
D. Bluish color around the nose and
mouth
A person eating dinner begins to cough loudly. What should
1042
be done NEXT?
A. Give an abdominal thrust.
B. Leave the victim to call 9-1-1.
C. Encourage the victim to continue
to cough forcefully.
D. Give solid slaps between the
victim’s shoulder blades.
A person eating dinner begins to cough loudly. What should
1043
be done NEXT?
A. Give an abdominal thrust.
B. Leave the victim to call 9-1-1.
C. Encourage the victim to
continue to cough forcefully.
D. Give solid slaps between the
victim’s shoulder blades.
Which describes the correct hand position
1044
when giving abdominal thrusts?
A. Put your arms around the victim and
clasp hands.
B. Make fists with both hands, wrap
arms around victim.
C. With arms around victim, make a fist
with one hand, cover with other
hand.
D. Keep both hands flat against the
abdomen, just above the naval.
Which describes the correct hand position
1045
when giving abdominal thrusts?
A. Put your arms around the victim and
clasp hands.
B. Make fists with both hands, wrap
arms around victim.
C. With arms around victim, make a fist
with one hand, cover with other
hand.
D. Keep both hands flat against the
abdomen, just above the naval.
Which statement is TRUE about shock?
A. All victims, regardless of injuries,
should be treated for shock.
B. Increased pulse and respirations,
and low blood pressure, are symptoms
of shock.
C. Keeping a shock victim calm and
comfortable is a myth.
D. As long as a victim is conscious,
he/she is not in shock.
1046
Which statement is TRUE about shock?
A. All victims, regardless of injuries,
should be treated for shock.
B. Increased pulse and respirations,
and low blood pressure, are symptoms
of shock.
C. Keeping a shock victim calm and
comfortable is a myth.
D. As long as a victim is conscious,
he/she is not in shock.
1047
1048
A man with pain in the jaw, dizziness, shortness of
breath and heartburn MOST likely is experiencing
a:
A. Seizure
B. Stroke
C. Heart attack
D. Kidney stone
1049
A man with pain in the jaw, dizziness, shortness of
breath and heartburn MOST likely is experiencing
a:
A. Seizure
B. Stroke
C. Heart attack
D. Kidney stone
Which action is correct for controlling a nosebleed?
A. Have the victim lie flat and pinch
nostrils closed.
B. Have the victim lie flat and apply
pressure over bridge of the nose.
C. Have the victim sit up and pinch
nostrils closed.
D. Have the victim sit up and apply
pressure over the bridge of the nose.
1050
Which action is correct for controlling a nosebleed?
A. Have the victim lie flat and pinch
nostrils closed.
B. Have the victim lie flat and apply
pressure over bridge of the nose.
C. Have the victim sit up and pinch
nostrils closed.
D. Have the victim sit up and apply
pressure over the bridge of the nose.
1051
1052
Placing a person in the supine position and
elevating the legs are correct actions to prevent:
A. Fainting.
B. Seizures.
C. Headaches.
D. Vomiting.
1053
Placing a person in the supine position and
elevating the legs are correct actions to prevent:
A. Fainting.
B. Seizures.
C. Headaches.
D. Vomiting.
1054
The main goal when attending a person who is
having a seizure is:
A. Enlisting the help from others.
B. Monitoring the vital signs.
C. Keeping the person safe.
D. Preventing additional seizures.
1055
The main goal when attending a person who is
having a seizure is:
A. Enlisting the help from others.
B. Monitoring the vital signs.
C. Keeping the person safe.
D. Preventing additional seizures.
If a rescuer observes a foreign object protruding
1056
from a victim’s body, which action is BEST?
A. Remove the object, hold pressure for
15 minutes, then apply a pressure
bandage.
B. Immobilize the object by taping
dressings in place around the object.
C. Leave the object in place and wash
with disinfectant soap.
D. Pull the object slightly until it is
stabilized.
If a rescuer observes a foreign object protruding
1057
from a victim’s body, which action is BEST?
A. Remove the object, hold pressure for
15 minutes, then apply a pressure
bandage.
B. Immobilize the object by taping
dressings in place around the object.
C. Leave the object in place and wash
with disinfectant soap.
D. Pull the object slightly until it is
stabilized.
1058
The initial treatment for most major burns consists
of applying:
A. An adhesive dressing.
B. Cool water.
C. Ice.
D. An antibiotic ointment.
1059
The initial treatment for most major burns consists
of applying:
A. An adhesive dressing.
B. Cool water.
C. Ice.
D. An antibiotic ointment.
1060
You have just witnessed a victim having a seizure
with severe shaking of arms and legs. Immediately
following the seizure what action should be taken
NEXT?
A. Offer fluid
B. Call 9-1-1
C. Check for breathing
D. Check victim’s medications
1061
You have just witnessed a victim having a seizure
with severe shaking of arms and legs. Immediately
following the seizure what action should be taken
NEXT?
A. Offer fluid
B. Call 9-1-1
C. Check for breathing
D. Check victim’s medications
1062
A colleague complains of blurred vision, headache, and
facial numbness. You notice slurred speech and use of
inappropriate words. You think your colleague MIGHT be
having a(an):
A. Heart attack.
B. Migraine headache.
C. Seizure.
D. Stroke.
1063
A colleague complains of blurred vision, headache, and
facial numbness. You notice slurred speech and use of
inappropriate words. You think your colleague MIGHT be
having a(an):
A. Heart attack.
B. Migraine headache.
C. Seizure.
D. Stroke.
What is the correct action for a body part
which has been accidently amputated? 1064
A. Rinse with water, wrap it in moistened
cloth and place in container with ice
and water.
B. Place the part directly on ice and place
it in plastic bag.
C. Tape the part onto the victim’s body,
near the affected area.
D. Rinse the part with water, wrap in a
clean, dry bandage, transport it to the
pathology lab.
What is the correct action for a body part
which has been accidently amputated? 1065
A. Rinse with water, wrap it in moistened
cloth and place in container with ice
and water.
B. Place the part directly on ice and place
it in plastic bag.
C. Tape the part onto the victim’s body,
near the affected area.
D. Rinse the part with water, wrap in a
clean, dry bandage, transport it to the
pathology lab.
CPR is indicated during an emergency when the rescuer 1066
notes
the victim:
A.
To be nonresponsive, but breathing.
B.
To be responsive, but respirations less
than 10.
C.
Is not breathing and has no pulse.
D.
Is breathing and has a slow, weak
pulse.
CPR is indicated during an emergency when the rescuer 1067
notes
the victim:
A.
To be nonresponsive, but breathing.
B.
To be responsive, but respirations less
than 10.
C.
Is not breathing and has no pulse.
D.
Is breathing and has a slow, weak
pulse.
1068
Information
Technology
1069
1. What term describes the process of recording
observations and information about patients in a
health care setting?
A.
Transcription
B.
Coding
C.
Charting
D.
Admitting
1070
1. What term describes the process of recording
observations and information about patients in a
health care setting?
A.
Transcription
B.
Coding
C.
Charting
D.
Admitting
1071
A physician visits a patient in the hospital. Where
would the physician document what she/he
noted about the patient during the visit?
A.
Statistical data sheet
B.
Progress notes
C.
Graphic sheet
D.
Physician’s orders
1072
A physician visits a patient in the hospital. Where
would the physician document what she/he
noted about the patient during the visit?
A.
Statistical data sheet
B.
Progress notes
C.
Graphic sheet
D.
Physician’s orders
1073
What is often included on a medical history form?
A.
Consent for surgical procedures
B.
Treatments provided for the patient and
the patient’s response
C.
Insurance identification
D.
Allergies
1074
What is often included on a medical history form?
A.
Consent for surgical procedures
B.
Treatments provided for the patient and
the patient’s response
C.
Insurance identification
D.
Allergies
When can medical records be released to a patient’s
husband?
A.
permission.
B.
C.
When the insurance coverage is in his
name.
Any time the husband makes a written
request.
When the patient has given written
D.
When the wife is under the age of 18.
1075
When can medical records be released to a patient’s
husband?
A.
permission.
B.
C.
When the insurance coverage is in his
name.
Any time the husband makes a written
request.
When the patient has given written
D.
When the wife is under the age of 18.
1076
A nurse notes that Mrs. Jones tolerates her bath better after
receiving pain medication thirty minutes before the bath.1077
When using the SOAP method, where would the nurse
document the recommendation to give pain medication 30
minutes before the bath?
A. S
B. O
C. A
D. P
A nurse notes that Mrs. Jones tolerates her bath better after
receiving pain medication thirty minutes before the bath.1078
When using the SOAP method, where would the nurse
document the recommendation to give pain medication 30
minutes before the bath?
A. S
B. O
C. A
D. P
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using
computerized medical records?
A. Cost of converting to the system.
B. Legibility of charting.
C. Information can be recorded
more quickly.
D. Records are in digital format.
1079
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using
computerized medical records?
A. Cost of converting to the system.
B. Legibility of charting.
C. Information can be recorded
more quickly.
D. Records are in digital format.
1080
What would a medical assistant do with a CMS 1500 form?
A.
history.
B.
C.
Request an opinion about the patient’s
medical care from another physician.
File for reimbursement from a patient’s
health insurance provider.
Record the patient’s past medical
D.
Obtain informed consent for a surgical
procedure.
1081
What would a medical assistant do with a CMS 1500 form?
A.
history.
B.
C.
Request an opinion about the patient’s
medical care from another physician.
File for reimbursement from a
patient’s health insurance provider.
Record the patient’s past medical
D.
Obtain informed consent for a surgical
procedure.
1082
What does a CPT code tell an insurance company?
A. The patient’s group identification
number.
B.
The name and medical license number
of a patient’s physician.
C.
The patient’s prognosis.
D.
The specific procedure performed on
the patient.
1083
What does a CPT code tell an insurance company?
A. The patient’s group identification
number.
B.
The name and medical license number
of a patient’s physician.
C.
The patient’s prognosis.
D.
The specific procedure performed
on the patient.
1084
1085
What communication method is usually used by
health care agencies for daily communication
with insurance companies?
A. Pagers
B. Cell phones
C. U.S. mail
D. E-mail
1086
What communication method is usually used by
health care agencies for daily communication
with insurance companies?
A. Pagers
B. Cell phones
C. U.S. mail
D. E-mail
An imaging center wishes to send a CT scan report to a
physician’s office. What should accompany the report?
A. A copy of the patient’s insurance
information
B. A cover sheet
C. A CMS-1500 form
D. A statistical data form
1087
An imaging center wishes to send a CT scan report to a
physician’s office. What should accompany the report?
A. A copy of the patient’s insurance
information
B. A cover sheet
C. A CMS-1500 form
D. A statistical data form
1088
1089
What type of software program is usually used for
financial record management in a healthcare
setting?
A. Database
B. Spreadsheet
C. Word processor
D. Operating system
1090
What type of software program is usually used for
financial record management in a healthcare
setting?
A. Database
B. Spreadsheet
C. Word processor
D. Operating system
1091
What is an example of the use of technology for
patient monitoring at a local pharmacy?
A. Blood pressure machine
B. Pharmacy database
C. Electronic cash register
D. Pulse oximetry
1092
What is an example of the use of technology for
patient monitoring at a local pharmacy?
A. Blood pressure machine
B. Pharmacy database
C. Electronic cash register
D. Pulse oximetry
1093
What diagnostic imaging technique uses sound
waves that are interpreted by a computer?
A. EKG
B. MRI
C. CT Scan
D. Ultrasonography
1094
What diagnostic imaging technique uses sound
waves that are interpreted by a computer?
A. EKG
B. MRI
C. CT Scan
D. Ultrasonography
1095
What technology would be the MOST helpful to
residents in a remote village in Alaska?
A. Database
B. Telemedicine
C. Medical Robotics
D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
1096
What technology would be the MOST helpful to
residents in a remote village in Alaska?
A. Database
B. Telemedicine
C. Medical Robotics
D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
1097
What do MRIs, CT scans, and medical sonography have in
common?
A.
They are non-invasive
B.
They all use x-rays
C.
They are examples of medical robotics
D.
They were discovered in the 1990s
1098
What do MRIs, CT scans, and medical sonography have in
common?
A.
They are non-invasive
B.
They all use x-rays
C.
They are examples of medical robotics
D.
They were discovered in the 1990s
1099
Using a computer arm to perform microscopic
surgery is an example of:
A. Medical robotics.
B. Cardiac monitoring.
C. Stress testing.
D. Bioinformatics.
1100
Using a computer arm to perform microscopic
surgery is an example of:
A. Medical robotics.
B. Cardiac monitoring.
C. Stress testing.
D. Bioinformatics.
1101
What health professional would MOST LIKELY use
bioinformatics?
A. An EMT
B. A neurosurgeon
C. A biomedical equipment technician
D. A genetic counselor
1102
What health professional would MOST LIKELY use
bioinformatics?
A. An EMT
B. A neurosurgeon
C. A biomedical equipment technician
D. A genetic counselor
1103
Computers are regularly used for diagnostic
purposes in the hospital:
A. Pharmacy.
B. Operating room.
C. Laboratory.
D. Physical therapy department.
1104
Computers are regularly used for diagnostic
purposes in the hospital:
A. Pharmacy.
B. Operating room.
C. Laboratory.
D. Physical therapy department.
1105
Most medical practices use a specialized
software program for:
A.
Communicating with patients via
cell phones.
B.
Taking to patients online.
C.
Scheduling appointments.
D.
Ordering medical supplies.
1106
Most medical practices use a specialized
software program for:
A.
Communicating with patients via
cell phones.
B.
Taking to patients online.
C.
Scheduling appointments.
D.
Ordering medical supplies.
1107
What agency uses bioinformatics to maintain
records of pharmaceutical research?
A. CDC
B. FDA
C. OSHA
D. EPA
1108
What agency uses bioinformatics to maintain
records of pharmaceutical research?
A. CDC
B. FDA
C. OSHA
D. EPA
1109
What type of computer does not require a mouse
or keyboard for input?
A. Laptop
B. Touchscreen
C. PC
D. Greenscreen
1110
What type of computer does not require a mouse
or keyboard for input?
A. Laptop
B. Touchscreen
C. PC
D. Greenscreen
1111
What is the recommended process for medical
offices when submitting a CMS1500 claim form?
A. Mailed paper form
B. Fax
C. Email attachment
D. Electronic submission
1112
What is the recommended process for medical
offices when submitting a CMS1500 claim form?
A. Mailed paper form
B. Fax
C. Email attachment
D. Electronic submission
1113
Which of the following is an example of a
secondary storage system for computers?
A. Mouse
B. Hard drive
C. Flash drive
D. Keyboard
1114
Which of the following is an example of a
secondary storage system for computers?
A. Mouse
B. Hard drive
C. Flash drive
D. Keyboard
1115
When you respond to an email from your direct
supervisor, you should always:
A.
B. Use the same acronyms you use when
emailing friends.
C.
Select “reply all” when responding.
D.
Use all caps.
Use proper grammar and punctuation.
1116
When you respond to an email from your direct
supervisor, you should always:
A.
B. Use the same acronyms you use when
emailing friends.
C.
Select “reply all” when responding.
D.
Use all caps.
Use proper grammar and punctuation.
1117
Social networking regularly creates what negative
opportunity for youth?
A. Sexting
B. Texting and driving
C. Cyberbullying
D. Online gaming
1118
Social networking regularly creates what negative
opportunity for youth?
A. Sexting
B. Texting and driving
C. Cyberbullying
D. Online gaming