Transcript Document

Board Review Week 3 Test
Good luck!!
Question 1 of 40
Inhibition of fear and loss of emotion are prominent signs of lesions of the
(A) Mammillary bodies
(B) Amygdaloid nuclei and lumbar system
(C) Cerebral frontal lobes
(D) Cerebral motor cortex
(E) Neocortex
B Amygdaloid nuclei and lumbar system
After the destruction of amygdaloid nucleus and lumbar system, the normal fear reaction is often absent.
Mammillary bodies are part of the Papez circuit (of limbic system). Stimulation and ablation experiments indicate
that in addition to its role in olfaction, the limbic system is concerned with feeding behavior. Along with the
hypothalamus, it is also concerned with sexual behavior, the emotion of rage and fear, and motivation.
The functions of cerebral frontal lobes and cerebral motor cortex include initiating voluntary motor impulses for the
movement of skeletal muscles, analyzing sensory experiences and providing responses relating to personality.
The frontal lobes are also involved with responses related to memory, emotions, reasoning, judgment, planning
and verbal communication. Lesions in cerebral frontal lobes and motor cortex may affect any or all of these
functions.
Removal or lesions of neocortex will inhibit sexual behavior.
Question 2 of 40
Which of the following detect low frequency touch in hairless skin
(A) Bare nerve endings
(B) Pacinian corpuscles
(C) Meissner's corpuscles
(D) Ruffini endings
(E) End bulb of Krause
C Meissner's corpuscles
Meissner's corpuscles are specialized receptors that lie in the papillary dermis, perpendicular to the surface of the
skin. They are primarily found in hairless skin, particularly the fingers and toes. The capsule of the corpuscle is an
elongated cone, within which an unmyelinated nerve ending spirals to the tip of the cone. As in the Pacinian
corpuscle, the unmyelinated nerve ending is enclosed by Schwann cells.
Question 3 of 40
The nerve fibers that innervate the adrenal medulla are best described as
(A) Adrenergic sympathetic
(B) Cholinergic sympathetic
(C) Adrenergic parasympathetic
(D) Cholinergic parasympathetic
B Cholinergic sympathetic
The term cholinergic is used to describe any physiologic or pharmacologic relationship that involves acetylcholine
(ACh). For example, cholinergic nerve fibers synthesize and release ACh, cholinergic receptors complex with ACh
or synthetic analogs of ACh, and cholinergic drugs chemically resemble ACh or interfere with its inactivation. A
sympathetic nerve fiber is part of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.
Autonomic control of the adrenal medulla involves single innervation via motor fibers of the sympathetic division of
the autonomic nervous system (ANS). This unique arrangement of single innervation, rather than dual autonomic
innervation through the two opposing ANS subdivisions requires sympathetic neurotransmission that is not
dependent on norepinephrine (noradrenaline). The majority of postganglionic sympathetic fibers of the ANS
release noradrenaline and are termed adrenergic , but the sympathetic preganglionic fibers that innervate the
adrenal medulla release ACh, therefore, such fibers are designated as cholinergic sympathetic fibers.
The adrenal medulla has its embryological origins as a sympathetic ganglion that migrates to a location on the
superior aspect of the kidney, but retains its connection with the sympathetic preganglionic fiber. (In this regard the
cholinergic sympathetic classification of the autonomic fiber controlling the adrenal medulla is not unusual since all
preganglionic fibers, both sympathetic and parasympathetic, are classified as cholinergic sympathetic fibers.)
Question 4 of 40
In which of the anatomic locations are type-IV collagen fibers found?
(A) Skin
(B) Basement membrane
(C) Cartilage
(D) Bones and tendons
(E) Blood vessels
B Basement membrane
Type IV collagen is amorphous. It is abundant in the basement membrane. Distribution of collagen in different
tissues is enumerated as follows:
Type I Skin, bone, tendons
Type II Cartilage, vitreous humor
Type III Blood vessels, skin, uterus
Type IV Basement membrane
Type V Interstitial tissue
Type VII Dermal epidermal junction
Type VIII Endothelium-descemet's membrane
Type IX Cartilage
Type X Cartilage
Type XI Cartilage
Question 5 of 40
Routes of administration contribute to different bioavailabilities (F), different times to
reach peak plasma concentration (Tmax), and different maximal serum levels
(Cmaxx). Which of the following routes of administration provides the lowest drug
bioavailability?
(A) Intravenous
(B) Intramuscular
(C) Inhalational
(D) Oral
(E) Sublingual
D Oral
Bioavailability (F) refers to the rate and extent to which a drug or a metabolite enters general circulation. From the
bloodstream, the drug or metabolite is capable of reaching its site of action. Several variables affect bioavailability. For
example, the formulation and pH of the drug can affect how rapidly the drug is absorbed through membranes. In addition,
the route of administration influences bioavailability because bioavailability is determined by measuring either the amount
of drug in circulation or the extent of the pharmacologic response produced by the drug. Either way, the route of
administration plays a critical role.
In theory, the intravenous (IV) and intra-arterial (IA) routes deliver 100% of the administered dose to the bloodstream (F =
1). Other parenteral routes such as the intramuscular (IM) or subcutaneous (SC) routes deliver somewhat less than 100%
of the administered dose (F < 1) due to pharmacokinetic factors such as tissue binding and relatively slow tissue
clearance by the lymphatic system. The inhalational route, due to the extensive surface area of the alveolar-capillary
interface, can provide a relatively high bioavailability measurement, although not as great as that attained through direct
introduction of drug into the bloodstream. The route yielding relatively low bioavailability—a distinct disadvantage—is the
oral route. The low bioavailability of drug is due to the action of gastric enzymes, gastrointestinal motility, and extensive
hepatic first-pass metabolism effects. First-pass effects refer to the rapid inactivation of a drug by hepatic enzymes (e.g.
mixed function oxidases) and the rapid elimination of drug metabolites via the biliary route of excretion. Drug metabolism
also occurs within the intestinal lumen, the intestinal mucosal cells, and the hepatic portal system, but the majority of firstpass effects are due to the action of hepatic enzymes. (Although inhalational drugs are not directly affected by hepatic
first-pass effects, they are subject to lung first-pass effects, including metabolism and excretion.) Passage through general
circulation or through the kidney does not contribute to first-pass effects in pharmacokinetics.
Different routes of administration exhibit different advantages and disadvantages. The intravenous route delivers drug to
the bloodstream nearly instantaneously as evidenced by the short time required to reach peak plasma concentration
(Tmax) and maximal serum levels (Cmax). By contrast, the oral route requires a much longer time to reach Tmax and
Cmax. The intravenous route provides precise control of dose via IV infusion and provides the means to deliver watersoluble drugs such as aminophylline in large volumes. A significant drawback to the rapid onset and distribution of drug
through the IV route is the simple fact that the delivered dose is not retrievable should a dosage miscalculation or an
unforeseen drug reaction occur. The enteral route, on the other hand, allows the retrieval of a portion of orally
administered drug through induction of emesis or gastric lavage. In addition, orally administered drugs, because of their
dosing convenience, are ideal for chronic outpatient use.
Question 6 of 40
A patient is convinced that he is the King of England. This is an example of
(A) Hallucinations
(B) Delusions
(C) Delirium
(D) Euphoria
(E) Depression
B Delusions
A delusion is an idea that is not fixed in reality. A hallucination is a perception without a stimulus. Depression
involves a depressed mood and lack of interest in life. Euphoria is an elevated mood. Delirium involves confusion
and disorientation.
Question 7 of 40
A 79-year-old African-American female is admitted to the hospital for progressive shortness of breath. She has no previous
history of pulmonary insufficiency, and no history of emphysema, although she did smoke one pack per day until she was 60.
The symptoms started three weeks prior to admission, and were gradual in onset. She has not had a cough, fever, or chest
pain. She does have a history of hypertension, glaucoma, arthritis, kidney stones, and hysterectomy. Medications at the time of
admission include amlodipine, ibuprofen, and eye drops. She is allergic to sulfur and penicillin, both of which caused a rash.
Family history is significant for colon cancer, breast cancer, arthritis, diabetes, and hypertension. Social history reveals that the
patient was married for forty years, but her husband died three months ago from heart failure. She lives alone.
A chest x-ray at admission is suspicious for a mass in periphery of the left lower lung, and a follow up CAT scan is suspicious
for malignancy. Consultation is obtained from a pulmonologist, who performs a video assisted thorascopic surgery (VATS) and
biopsy. The pathology result reveals small cell carcinoma. An oncologist is called for an opinion, and recommends
chemotherapy since the tissue type indicates a good chance of success. The problem is that the patient refuses treatment. She
denies any depressive symptoms, appears to be awake, alert, and oriented. She answers questions appropriately and does not
appear to be suffering from delirium or dementia.
As the patient's primary care physician, you would like to respect the patient's autonomy, but are concerned about the
consequences of her decision to forgo treatment. She has indicated to you that she understands the proposed treatment
options and that she understands how they relate to her situation. You decide to:
(A) Assess her competence by administering a bedside mental status examination
(B) Enlist the help of family members who may be able to change the patient's mind
(C) Respect her decision if she can demonstrate and communicate ability to reason
(D) Consult adult protective services because she is no longer able to care for herself
(E) Declare her incompetent and ask the oncologist to administer the chemotherapy
C Respect her decision if she can demonstrate and communicate ability to reason
Competence is a legal term, capacity is a medical term. Physicians are often called on to make a determination of
a patient's capacity to make medical decisions. The patient's primary care provider is an ideal person to make
the assessment as they have background knowledge of the patient's educational level, values, and medical
history.
A psychiatrist may be needed if overlying psychiatric problems make it difficult to determine capacity for judgment
or ability to reason. Courts make the ultimate determination of competence, although there is usually
concordance with the medical determination of capacity. Only lack of competence has legal ramifications,
however.
A bedside mental status examination may help to determine capacity, but in and of itself does not determine
competence. If the patient is deemed to have the capacity to make her own decisions, it may be detrimental
to encourage family member involvement in the decision making process.
Adult protective services are usually called to investigate cases of abuse or neglect, not issues of capacity or
competence. If still unclear, a psychiatrist or ethics board consultation could be utilized to help determine the
patient's capacity to make her own decisions.
Four main criteria should be used to determine a patient's capacity to make medical decisions.
1) They can demonstrate understanding of the treatment options.
2) They can demonstrate understanding of how the different options affect their own individual situation.
3) They can demonstrate ability to reason with the above information, using either evidence based in fact, or
personal beliefs rooted in their value system.
4) They are able to demonstrate 1-3 and can communicate a choice.
Question 8 of 40
Which of the four lobes of the cerebral cortex is associated with motor function?
(A) Frontal lobe
(B) Parietal lobe
(C) Temporal lobe
(D) Occipital lobe
(E) Limbic lobe
A Frontal lobe
The brain, or cerebrum, is divided into two hemispheres: the right hemisphere and the left hemisphere.
Connecting the two hemispheres are the corpus callosum, anterior commissure, hippocampal commissure,
posterior commissure, and the habenular commissure.
The outermost portion of the brain, characterized by convolutions and grooves, is the cerebral cortex of which the
right hemisphere controls the motor and sensory processes of the left side of the body and the left hemisphere
controls the right side of the body (contralateral control).
The cerebral cortex may be anatomically divided into four lobes: the frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital lobes.
The frontal lobe is responsible for planning and for motor functions. Specifically, the area within the frontal lobe
that controls voluntary body movements is called the motor cortex. Thus, frontal lobe is the correct answer to the
question.
The parietal lobe is largely concerned with somatic sensation (somatosensory cortex), the occipital lobe with
vision, and the temporal lobe with audition as well as other functions. Thus, in the above question, these are
incorrect answers.
The limbic lobe is a ring of cortical structures surrounding the central core of the brain and is itself encircled by the
frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital lobes. It is part of the limbic system which is generally associated with
emotion, learning and memory. As it is not associated with motor function, limbic lobe is an incorrect answer.
Question 9 of 40
Discontinuous or sinusoidal capillaries are characteristic of the type of capillary found
in which one of the following locations?
(A) Thyroid gland
(B) Anterior pituitary gland
(C) Duodenum
(D) Spleen
(E) Lung
D Spleen
Based upon their ultrastructural characteristics, capillary endothelia may be described as being continuous,
fenestrated or discontinuous (sinusoidal). Discontinuous capillaries characteristically have larger diameter and
more irregularly shaped lumen than that of other capillaries. Furthermore, these large diameter capillaries may
have gaps between endothelial cells and have sparse or absent basal lamina underlying the endothelium. These
types of capillaries are common to the spleen, but are also found in the liver and in bone marrow.
Question 10 of 40
When an immunoglobulin is used as an antigen, it will be treated as any other
foreign protein and will elicit an antibody response. As individual antibodies differ in
their V regions, one can raise antibodies against unique sequence variants in the VH
and VL regions. These antibodies are called:
(A) Anti-allotype
(B) Anti-idiotype
(C) Anti-isotype
(D) Anti-light chain
(E) Anti-heavy chain
B Anti-idiotype
Each immunoglobulin consists of light chains and heavy chains. Isotypic differences are those between types
such as IgG and IgM, and allotypes are allelic variants in the individual C genes of antibodies. Idiotypes are
antigenic determinants of the variable regions linked to the specificity towards the antigen. Long ago it was shown
that the heterogeneity and average affinity of antibodies increase with time in response to an antigen. The
population of idiotypes produced during an immune response evolves so that the response is more specific and
more effective. The study of idiotypes is essential for the analysis of the genetic origin of variability.
Question 11 of 40
Which of the following dose-response graphs in the attached image shows the
results of an interaction between an agonist drug and a noncompetitive antagonist?
Assume all data are derived from an identical test population
(A) Drug A
(B) Drug B
(C) Drug C
(D) Drug D
A Drug A
Dose-response curves that show the interaction between an agonist drug and an antagonist drug are those that compare the ED50
of the agonist alone with the ED50 of the agonist after an antagonist is added. In both the Drug A and Drug B graphs, it can be seen
that the ED50 (median effective dose) of the agonist drug has increased from approximately 20 mg to approximately 50 mg. This
increase in the median effective dose is due to the pharmacologic antagonism between agonist and antagonist as both drugs attempt
to bind the same pharmacologic receptor.
A drug response is related to the number of complexes formed between receptor and agonist. An agonist exhibits affinity plus efficacy
whereas an antagonist shows affinity for a receptor, or the ability to form a complex with it, but possesses no intrinsic activity, or
efficacy.
The noncompetitive nature of pharmacologic antagonism is seen in the graph of Drug A in which the potency and the efficacy of the
agonist are both decreased. This type of interaction shows a sigmoid ED50 curve displaced downwards and to the right. The median
effective dose increases from 20 mg to 50 mg, indicating a loss of agonist potency. In other words, more drug is required to bind
available receptors and evoke a particular response. The maximal drug response, however, cannot be restored, no matter how high
the dose of agonist drug administered. This decrease in effectiveness is visible graphically as a shift downwards in the ED50 curve
and is typical of the irreversible competition occurring between an agonist drug and a noncompetitive antagonist. Each receptor
bound by the noncompetitive antagonist is no longer available to the agonist, thereby decreasing agonist efficacy, or the ability to
produce an effect relative to a given number of drug-receptor complexes.
In the Drug B graph the ED50 curve has undergone a parallel displacement to the right but no displacement downwards. This shift
denotes a decrease in potency of the agonist but no change in its efficacy. Potency refers to the relative ability of a drug to produce a
particular response at a given dose. It should be remembered that comparisons of potency are only useful if made at equieffective
doses.
In competitive antagonism, an optimal number of agonist-receptor complexes can be formed and a maximal response (100%) can
still be achieved, but the dose necessary to elicit this level of response is higher as evidenced by the increased median effective
dose. The pharmacologic blocking effect of the competitive antagonist can be reversed by increasing the dose of the agonist. This
provides additional agonist drug to bind available receptors as the competitive antagonist "uncouples" from them.
A classic example of this type of reversible pharmacologic antagonism is the competition for cholinergic receptors (N2-nicotinic) at
motor end plates of neuromuscular junctions that occurs between acetylcholine acting as agonist and curarelike neuromuscular
blockers acting as competitive antagonists.
Question 12 of 40
As a conscientious pulmonologist, you decide to round at the hospital for the second time in one day because you have several critically ill patients. Your
office hours ran late and the sun is setting, but the fourth-year medical student who is shadowing you for the month insists on accompanying you, and
won't even consider your suggestion that he go home and rest. On the way to the hospital, you receive a call that Ms. Adelman is doing poorly. She is a
90-year-old white woman with advanced lung adenocarcinoma and metastatic disease. She was admitted to your service three days ago with worsening
pulmonary function and mild hypoxia. She has a living will, specifying that no heroic measures be used to sustain her life. She has many family members
locally who have maintained a constantly rotating vigil at her bedside since she was admitted.
When you admitted her to the hospital, you knew that nothing could be done. The hospital's social work department has been working on placing her in a
hospice program. Her medical therapy had already been maximized prior to admission, and she continues to receive supplemental oxygen, inhaled
albuterol, and antibiotics. You tell the nurse that you'll be right there, and upon arriving at the hospital you and your student head straight for her room.
You can tell that she is dying as soon as you walk through the door. Her breathing is terribly labored and her respiratory rate is 36. She has a strained
look on her face, and is obviously suffering. Three of her family members are in the room, and ask that you please do something to stop her suffering. Her
nurse is summoned, and you request 10 milligrams of intravenous morphine. Almost instantly, the grimace leaves her face and her respiratory rate
decreases to 24. The pulse oximeter next to her bed drops from 93% on 100% non-rebreather to 88%. She is still clenching the bedrails with grim
determination, and perspiration rolls down her cheeks. "Isn't there anything else you can do?" the family asks. "She looks so uncomfortable. She wouldn't
have wanted it this way." You had discussed her poor prognosis on many occasions with several family members, and made sure that her living will was
complete and that a copy was on her chart.
The family members have long been prepared for the inevitable, and all agreed that she should be kept as comfortable as possible. "I could give her more
morphine," you say, "to let her go in peace." "No you can't," the helpful medical student points out. "Her pulse ox is already low, and she can't stand any
more respiratory compromise. It'd be like assisted suicide, and that's only legal in Oregon." The bewildered family turns to you, visibly more upset at the
prospect of watching mom suffer any more than she has already.
At this uncomfortable juncture, you feel that you should
(A) Call an emergency ethics board meeting as well as the hospital's risk manager
(B) Increase the morphine until she is comfortable, even if she dies in the process
(C) Leave the morphine dose as it is, rather than risk liability from premature death
(D) Tell the family that her pain is from terminal cancer, nothing more can be done
(E) Ask the family about the patient's religious beliefs—would she accept suicide?
B Increase the morphine until she is comfortable, even if she dies in the process
Much literature has been published on the fact that terminal cancer patients are often inadequately treated when it
comes to pain control. Many possible explanations have been proposed to explain this phenomenon. Some
practitioners may fear they will be reprimanded by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) for prescribing too
many controlled substances. Some may believe that the patient really isn't in "that much" pain. Others fear that the
side effects of the medication will cause further problems such as constipation, confusion, respiratory depression,
or addiction (even in a patient that has days or weeks to live!) The literature emphasizes that narcotics can be
dosed as high as it takes to achieve adequate pain control in terminally ill cancer patients. It is a common
misconception that a practitioner will be criminally prosecuted when a terminal patient dies while receiving
narcotics. If the patient in the aforementioned case inadvertently died while receiving high doses of morphine, it
would not be considered murder or assisted suicide. The use of adequate pain medication for this patient is
completely justified, especially in view of the patient's advanced directives, terminal diagnosis, and supportive
family. An ethics consultation or risk management assessment would be an option if either the physician or the
family were uncomfortable with the situation. Physician assisted suicide (the intentional administration of lifeending medication) is currently legal in Oregon, and other jurisdictions may legalize it or prohibit it in the future.
Question 13 of 40
Zelda, a 22-year-old housewife, believes a nearby electrical plant is sending out
energy waves to control her. She also believes that the "junk mail" sent to her
contains secret coded messages. She states she has been able to decipher the
codes and they reveal a plot to poison the local water supply. She says this has been
confirmed by the voices of her dead parents. She states she has "known" these
things for about 6 months. She also complains of having trouble sleeping, having
very little appetite, having no desire to participate in activities, and states she has
recently quit her job. The best diagnosis for Zelda is:
(A) Major depression
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Schizoaffective disorder
(D) Schizophrenia, catatonic type
(E) Brief psychotic disorder
C Schizoaffective disorder
Zelda's symptoms best describe the criteria for schizoaffective disorder. She presents with prominent
schizophrenic and affective symptoms. As the name implies, schizoaffective disorder combines features of both
disorders; a period where there is either a major depressive episode, a manic episode, or a mixed episode along
with Criterion A symptoms for schizophrenia (i.e., delusions, hallucinations, etc.).
Question 14 of 40
A tissue sample revealed the presence of villi, intestinal glands, and goblet cells
scattered throughout the mucosa. Furthermore, glands were present in the
submucosa. From which one of the following areas was this tissue sample taken?
(A) Esophagus
(B) Fundic stomach
(C) Duodenum
(D) Ileum
(E) Colon
C Duodenum
While villi, intestinal glands, and goblet cells might be found in the duodenum and ileum, submucosal glands, in
combination with the former characteristics, could be found only in the duodenum. The submucosal glands, or
Brunner's glands, secrete alkaline glycoproteins and bicarbonate ions to bring the pH of the intestinal contents to
that optimal for action of the pancreatic enzymes.
The esophagus does not possess villi on the cells of the stratified squamous epithelium. It may have mucosal
glands, however. The colon does not have villi or submucosal glands, but does have extensive numbers of goblet
cells.
Question 15 of 40
The botulinum toxin acts by
(A) Blocking the release of acetylcholine at the synapse and thereby producing paralysis
(B) Affecting cGMP activity
(C) Blocking protein synthesis
(D) Activating the complement cascade
A Blocking the release of acetylcholine at the synapse and thereby producing paralysis
Botulinum toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum is a neurotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine at the
synapset , producing paralysis. The genes for this toxin are encoded by a temperate bacteriophage. It is
composed of 2 polypeptide subunits held together by disulfide bonds and one of the subunits binds to a receptor
on the neuron.
Question 16 of 40
What two organs are illustrated in the photomicroscopic image?
(A) Liver and gall bladder
(B) Pars intermedia and pars distalis of the pituitary gland
(C) Seminal vesicle and prostate gland
(D) Ovary and uterine tube
(E) Stomach and liver
A Liver and gall bladder
The photomicroscopic image depicts the histological appearance of two organs in close contact; the liver and gall
bladder. Inspection of the epithelial lining of the gall bladder shows the presence of simple columnar cells.
Underlying the epithelium is a loose connective tissue core, the lamina propria, thrown into irregular folds. A fairly
prominent layer of smooth muscle is seen underlying the lamina propria, forming the muscularis layer of the gall
bladder. Glisson's capsule is absent at the position where the liver and gall bladder are in contact, however, the
characteristic hepatic plates with intervening sinusoids can be seen.
The intervening area common to the liver and gall bladder is composed of connective tissue adventitia. Note that
one of the folds of epithelium in the lumen of the gall bladder is pronounced and appears like a gland in the
sectioned organ.
Without careful inspection of the image, the liver may appear similar to the cells of the parenchyma within the pars
distalis of the pituitary gland, but the pars intermedia may contain what appear as colloid-filled cysts or follicles
lined by simple squamous or cuboidal epithelium, not present in this image.
The seminal vesicle may show irregular folds of the lamina propria, similar to the gall bladder, but the epithelium is
predominantly pseudostratified columnar lining the lumen.
The prostate gland would show glands, whose lumen possibly contain concretions, lined by a variety of epithelia,
usually pseudostratified columnar. Underlying the glands are a fibromuscular connective tissue.
The gall bladder also may be confused with the uterine tube, since the uterine tube is lined with a simple columnar
epithelium, and has folds of lamina propria. However, many of the epithelial cells of the uterine tube are ciliated.
The ovary does not resemble the liver, since the parenchyma of the ovary contains ova in various stages of
maturation interspersed throughout connective tissue.
Question 17 of 40
Sleep spindles are characteristically seen on EEG in which the following sleep
stages?
(A) Stage 1
(B) Stage 2
(C) Stage 3
(D) Stage 4
(E) REM
B Stage 2
Sleep comprises approximately 1/3 of our lives and its function is far from being completely understood. Normally,
sleep is an active (not passive) process where the brain activity fluctuates over about 45 cycles per night. Distinct
sleep stages can be measured by EEG as patients pass through stages 1-4 (non-REM) and then enter REM
sleep. Patients enter REM sleep (dream sleep) approximately every 90 minutes and the duration of this stage
lengthens as the night progresses.
The characteristic EEG pattern of the various sleep stages is listed below along with some physiological
observations.
Waking - alpha waves (8-12 cps)
NREM Sleep - (Nonrapid eye movement) - low level of activity: lowered BP, heart rate, temperature, and
respiratory rate. Good muscle tone and slow, drifting eye movements.
Stage 1 - lightest sleep, a transition stage; low voltage, desynchronized waves.
Stage 2 - sleep spindles, (13-15 cps) and high spikes (K complexes).
Stage 3 - some delta waves (high voltage at 0.5-2.5 cps).
Stage 4 - deepest sleep, mostly in first half of night; mostly delta waves.
REM Sleep - active sleep characterized by rapid synchronous eye movement, twitching of facial and extremity
muscles, penile erections, and variation in pulse, BP, and respiratory rate. Muscular paralysis is present. Depth is
similar to stage 2. Dreaming can occur in several stages but is most common in REM sleep.
Question 18 of 40
In the clinical examination of a psychotic patient, the psychiatrist notices that the
patient smiles broadly as he discusses the death of his much loved dog. The clinical
characteristic noted is
(A) Thought Process
(B) Thought Content
(C) Mood
(D) Affect
(E) Impulse Control
D Affect
Affect is the visible expression of emotions. In this patient the affect is inappropriate to the content of his speech.
Thought process denotes the connections between thoughts, and thought content is the actual thoughts
themselves, which may be delusional or hallucinatory.
Mood is emotion that is pervasive and long-lasting. Mood is best described in the patient's own words.
Impulse control is a description of the patient's ability -or inability- to forego action in light of a particular feeling or
urge.
Question 19 of 40
Which of the following statements pertaining to the intravenous (IV bolus) route of
administration is FALSE?
(A) Bioavailability is 100% (F = 1)
(B) Reversibility of effect can be rapidly achieved
(C) Precision control of dose is possible
(D) Administration of water-soluble drugs is possible
(E) Peak plasma levels (Tmax) can be attained quickly
B Reversibility of effect can be rapidly achieved
Bioavailability (F) refers to the rate and extent to which a drug or a metabolite enters general circulation. From the
bloodstream, the drug or metabolite is capable of reaching its site of action. Several variables affect bioavailability. For
example, the formulation and pH of the drug can affect how rapidly the drug is absorbed through membranes. In addition,
the route of administration influences bioavailability because bioavailability is determined by measuring either the amount
of drug in circulation or the extent of the pharmacologic response produced by the drug. Either way, the route of
administration plays a critical role.
In theory, the intravenous (IV) and intra-arterial (IA) routes deliver 100% of the administered dose to the bloodstream (F =
1). Other parenteral routes such as the intramuscular (IM) or subcutaneous (SC) routes deliver somewhat less than 100%
of the administered dose (F < 1) due to pharmacokinetic factors such as tissue binding and relatively slow tissue
clearance by the lymphatic system. The inhalational route, due to the extensive surface area of the alveolar-capillary
interface, can provide a relatively high bioavailability measurement, although not as great as that attained through direct
introduction of drug into the bloodstream. The route yielding relatively low bioavailability—a distinct disadvantage—is the
oral route. The low bioavailability of drug is due to the action of gastric enzymes, gastrointestinal motility, and extensive
hepatic first-pass metabolism effects. First-pass effects refer to the rapid inactivation of a drug by hepatic enzymes (e.g.
mixed function oxidases) and the rapid elimination of drug metabolites via the biliary route of excretion. Drug metabolism
also occurs within the intestinal lumen, the intestinal mucosal cells, and the hepatic portal system, but the majority of firstpass effects are due to the action of hepatic enzymes. (Although inhalational drugs are not directly affected by hepatic
first-pass effects, they are subject to lung first-pass effects, including metabolism and excretion.) Passage through general
circulation or through the kidney does not contribute to first-pass effects in pharmacokinetics.
Different routes of administration exhibit different advantages and disadvantages. The intravenous route delivers drug to
the bloodstream nearly instantaneously as evidenced by the short time required to reach peak plasma concentration
(Tmax) and maximal serum levels (Cmax). By contrast, the oral route requires a much longer time to reach Tmax and
Cmax. The intravenous route provides precise control of dose via IV infusion and provides the means to deliver watersoluble drugs such as aminophylline in large volumes. A significant drawback to the rapid onset and distribution of drug
through the IV route is the simple fact that the delivered dose is not retrievable should a dosage miscalculation or an
unforeseen drug reaction occur. The enteral route, on the other hand, allows the retrieval of a portion of orally
administered drug through induction of emesis or gastric lavage. In addition, orally administered drugs, because of their
dosing convenience, are ideal for chronic outpatient use.
Question 20 of 40
The action potential in a Pacinian corpuscle starts at the
(A) End of the non-myelinated fiber
(B) First node of Ranvier
(C) Inside capsule layer
(D) Second node of Ranvier
(E) Outer capsule layer
B First node of Ranvier
Pacinian corpuscles, which are touch receptors, have been studied in detail. Because of their relatively large size
and accessibility in the mesentery of experimental animals, they can be isolated, studied with microelectrodes,
and subjected to microdissection. Each capsule consists of the straight, unmyelinated ending of a sensory nerve
fiber, 2 µm in diameter, surrounded by concentric lamellas of connective tissue that give the organ the appearance
of a minute cocktail onion. The myelin sheath of the sensory nerve begins inside the corpuscle. The first node of
Ranvier is also located inside, whereas the second is usually near the point at which the nerve fiber leaves the
corpuscle.
Deformation of the capsule causes a sudden change in the membrane potential by increasing its permeability and
allowing positively charged sodium ions to leak to the interior of the fiber. This change in local potential causes a
local circuit of current flow that spreads along the nerve fiber to its myelinated portion. At the first node of Ranvier
the local current flow initiates action potentials in the nerve fiber.
Question 21 of 40
Which of the following immunoglobulin isotypes is the best opsonin
(A) IgD
(B) IgE
(C) IgG1
(D) IgG4
(E) IgM
C IgG1
Opsonization is an enhancement of phagocytosis through the binding to the surface of a pathogen. IgG
antibodies, in particular IgG1 are very effective opsonins. Phagocytes express Fcg receptors on their surface.
These receptors bind IgG antibodies, especially IgG1. Phagocytes also distinguish between free antibodies, to
which they do not bind, and aggregated or multimeric antibodies on the surfaces of bacteria and viruses, to which
they do bind.
Question 22 of 40
The clinician wishes to slowly increase the average blood level of a drug in her
patient. What interval of time between repetitive drug dosing should be used to
assure accumulation of the drug in blood after oral administration?
(A) Interval longer than T1/2
(B) Interval shorter than T1/2
(C) Interval shorter than Kel
(D) More than four half-times
(E) Equal to or more than two half times
B Interval shorter than T1/2
The T1/2 is the time required to reduce the blood level of a drug by one half, thus after one T1/2 only 50% of the
drug remains. After two T1/2 intervals only 25% of the drug remains. If the dosage interval is more frequent than
the T1/2 time, accumulation is guaranteed.
The Kel is the elimination constant in concentration units eliminated per each time unit. This value cannot be used
to assure accumulation since the starting blood level is not known.
Four half-times will reduce the beginning blood concentration to about 6% of the starting concentration.
Question 23 of 40
Which of the following would increase the levels of acetylcholine in the synaptic
cleft?
(A) Inhibition of choline uptake
(B) Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
(C) Activation of nicotinic receptors
(D) Activation of muscarinic receptors
(E) Administration of glucose
B Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Of the above only the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase, the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine into acetate
and choline and effectively stops cholinergic signaling between two cells, would increase levels of acetylcholine in
the synaptic cleft.
Question 24 of 40
A medical resident will be entering private practice next year and is concerned about
the ethics of patient confidentiality and when it can be breached. There are certain
circumstances under which physicians in most jurisdictions are obligated to violate
patient confidentiality. Which of the following is a common one?
(A) Gunshot wounds
(B) Spousal abuse
(C) Psychosis
(D) Intravenous drug abuse
(E) Venereal diseases, including acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
A Gunshot wounds
Physicians in most jurisdictions are obligated to violate patient confidentiality when it is for the greater good or is
required by law. The most common circumstances included are gunshot wounds, wounds secondary to crimes,
communicable diseases, including venereal diseases and tuberculosis, child abuse, elder abuse, abuse of the
mentally impaired, animal abuse, and driving impairment secondary to physical conditions. A notable exception to
these rules is AIDS, despite the fact that it is a communicable disease, and that lack of notification of exposed
individuals may result in more people contracting this disease. The reasons for this are social and political, and
the devastating effect on the individual that would result from having his or her AIDS status become public
knowledge are felt, at this time, to outweigh the rights of others to be protected from exposure. Obviously, this
subject is quite controversial and not likely to be resolved in the near future. Other conditions that are generally
not reported in violation of patient confidentially are intravenous drug abuse, spousal abuse, and psychosis.
Question 25 of 40
A 23-year-old man is brought to therapy by a relative, who says that he has been
acting strangely for the past "6 or 7 months" and that for the past month he has been
obsessed with the television news because he says the newscasters are transmitting
private information to him. A likely diagnosis based on this information would be:
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Latent Schizophrenia
(C) Schizophreniform disorder
(D) Schizo-affective disorder
(E) Brief psychotic disorder
A Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is characterized by psychotic disturbances that affect such areas of functioning as thought content (e.g., delusions),
form of thought (e.g., bizarre or unfocussed thoughts), perception (e.g., hallucinations), affect (e.g., labile mood, flat affect), identity
(e.g., confusion regarding self, poor boundaries between self and external world), volition (e.g., loss of motivation), interpersonal
relationships (e.g., social withdrawal), and psychomotor behavior (e.g., rigidity, hyperactivity). The diagnosis of schizophrenia
requires that the characteristic symptoms be present for at least 1 month (e.g., that there be an active phase) and that functioning be
impaired with respect to premorbid functioning for a period of at least 6 months. DSM-IV identifies 5 types of schizophrenia: paranoid,
disorganized, catatonic, undifferentiated, and residual, based on their respective prominent features. Onset of schizophrenia is
usually in the late teens to mid-30s, and the course of the disease is normally chronic. If an acute first episode occurs and lasts less
than 6 months, the diagnosis of Schizophreniform disorder must be made. If the course continues beyond 6 months and all other
criteria are met, the diagnosis may be the changed to Schizophrenia of the appropriate subtype.
Schizophreniform disorder is identical in presentation to Schizophrenia, however Schizophreniform disorder, by definition, lasts less
than 6 months. The prognosis of Schizophreniform disorder is therefore better than that of Schizophrenia because the former is an
acute, rather than chronic, condition.
Childhood schizophrenia is similar to schizophrenia but it has an earlier onset. In addition, a significant difference is that children do
not have to specifically show a sustained deterioration from a previous level of functioning to partially fulfill the diagnostic criteria for
Schizophrenia. Rather, children must demonstrate a failure to develop normally in social, interpersonal, or affective areas and fulfill
the remaining diagnostic criteria for Schizophrenia in order to qualify for a diagnosis of Childhood Schizophrenia.
Schizo-affective disorder is characterized by a combination of the symptoms of a Mood disorder (e.g., depression) and
Schizophrenia, in individuals who do not meet the full diagnostic criteria of either disorder. Individuals who are suspected to be
suffering from a form a Schizophrenia on first glance, therefore, but who have significant symptoms related to mood, might be more
accurately diagnosed as having Schizo-affective disorder. The psychotic features of Schizo-affective disorder are generally more
prominent than would be seen in an individual diagnosed with a Mood Disorder with Psychotic Features, and the diagnosis requires
that the psychotic symptoms be present for at least 2 weeks during which time there are no mood symptoms. Mood symptoms are,
however, required to be present for most of the duration of the illness.
A Brief Psychotic disorder is characterized by the sudden onset of at least 1 psychotic symptom, which lasts for up to, but not
exceeding, 1 month. When the symptoms subside, the individual returns to his or her full premorbid level of functioning. Onset of
Brief Psychotic disorder frequently occurs after a severe stressor in which case the stressor should be noted, and in cases related to
childbirth, symptoms must occur within 4 weeks postpartum. The absence of the recent or heavy use of alcohol or other drugs
distinguishes Brief Psychotic disorder from Substance-Induced Psychotic disorder.
Question 26 of 40
A 25-year-old female in your practice has Gardner's syndrome. She has had multiple
adenomatous colon polyps removed through the years, but has decided that she no
longer wants to have any more colonoscopies. She states that she is tired of having
to endure the prep before the procedure and can't miss any more work to have the
procedures done. Past medical history is positive for Gardner's syndrome with an
osteoma of the mandible, and mild mental retardation. What should you do?
(A) Tell her that she is probably not at increased risk for colon cancer since she had made it to age 45 without
developing the disease
(B) If she doesn't voluntarily submit to colonoscopy, admit her against her will and perform the evaluation
under general anesthesia
(C) Advocate having her declared incompetent and have her husband sign consent for the procedure
(D) Schedule yearly CT scans of the abdomen instead, to screen her for colon cancer
(E) Determine whether she is competent to understand the ramifications of her refusal for screening
E Determine whether she is competent to understand the ramifications of her refusal
for screening
Hereditary syndromes with a greatly increased risk for adenomatous polyps and colon cancer include familial
polyposis, Gardner's syndrome, and Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. These patients need careful follow-up, with family
and genetic counseling so they understand the risks of their condition for them and their family.
In familial polyposis, there is a mutation on chromosome 5 (the FAP gene), which is transmitted in an autosomal
dominant pattern. Nearly all untreated patients will develop colon cancer before age 40. These individuals are
treated with surgical removal of the colon; if they choose to have a subtotal colectomy, they require aggressive
surveillance of the rectal remnant every 3 to 6 months to have new polyps removed.
Gardner's syndrome is a variant of family polyposis. It is associated with sebaceous cysts, desmoid tumors, and
osteomas of the skull or mandible. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant disease associated with
pigmentation of the skin and mucous membranes, as well as multiple hamartomatous polyps in the stomach and
small and large intestines.
Patients with familial polyposis syndromes, like those with any condition increasing the risk for malignancy, must
have adequate surveillance to try and identify pre-malignant polyps before they develop into cancer. However,
patient autonomy allows patients to refuse care, if they are competent to make decisions for themselves. The
clinician must determine (with the assistance of other professionals if needed) the patient's competence before
trying to force or coerce her compliance. Additionally it would be very useful to spend time to educate her further
about the importance for colonoscopic surveillance, particularly given her learning disability. If she is in fact
determined to be incompetent to make decisions about her own care, then other tactics may be employed to care
for her as needed.
Question 27 of 40
The movement of drugs through different body compartments occurs during the
period of drug action known as the
(A) Pharmacodynamic phase
(B) Pharmacokinetic phase
(C) Transitional phase
(D) Biotransformation phase
(E) Pharmaceutical phase
B Pharmacokinetic phase
The sequence of events set in motion following introduction of a drug into the body is commonly divided into three
phases:
(1) The pharmaceutical phase of drug action is concerned with the various formulations of drugs and the
different routes of administration available for their introduction. Formulations, or forms of drugs, often
influence how readily a drug becomes available or how quickly it is absorbed across cell membranes. The
route of administration determines, in part, how rapidly a drug is introduced to the body.
(2) Following introduction of a drug, movement of the drug through cell membranes from one body compartment to
another normally occurs. This pharmacokinetic phase is responsible for the movement of drugs from a
plasma protein-bound state to a free state in the plasma, and from the plasma into cell and tissue depot sites
and into organs such as the liver and kidneys. Pharmacokinetics deals with the rate of drug metabolism in
organs of biotransformation such as the liver and with the rate of clearance by organs of excretion such as the
kidneys. The complex interplay of absorption mechanisms (e.g. aqueous, lipid, and facilitated diffusion,
endocytosis, pH of fluids), storage (e.g. plasma-binding, tissue-binding, or cellular-binding), distribution
systems (e.g. blood, lymph, cerebrospinal fluid), enzymes (e.g. gastrointestinal, hepatic, pulmonary), and
hemodynamics (e.g. glomerular filtration pressure) contributes to the plasma half-life of drugs (t 1/2 ) and their
ultimate clearance from the body. In short, pharmacokinetics is concerned with the "fate of drugs" after they
have been introduced to the body.
(3) The pharmacodynamic phase is concerned with the physiologic and biochemical mechanisms of action of
drugs. This final phase of drug action is initiated by drug molecules that have "survived" the different
mechanisms of pharmacokinetics such as storage, biotransformation, and elimination. The remaining drug
molecules are free to interact at specific target sites such as membrane, enzyme, cytoplasmic, or nuclear
receptors.
Question 28 of 40
Although all immunoglobulin molecules are constructed from a basic unit of two
heavy chains and two light chains, multimers can be formed. A separate polypeptide
chain known as the J chain promotes polymerization by linking to the cysteines of
heavy chains. This polymerization of immunoglobulin molecules is important to
antibody binding to repetitive epitopes. The immunoglobulin isotypes that can form
polymers are:
(A) IgG and IgM
(B) IgM and IgA
(C) IgG and IgE
(D) IgG and IgD
(E) IgA and IgE
B IgM and IgA
The immunoglobulins include IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE, and IgD. Certain groups of streptococci secrete a variety of
streptolysins or hemolysins that lyse red blood cells and are much more active weight for weight than
hemolysins such as bile salts or saponin, but which have a more important toxic action on polymorphs and
macrophages. Various hemolysins are released also by pathogenic staphylococci, and these can kill phagocytes.
The immunophilins are a family of intracellular proteins that bind to certain compounds forming complexes that
interfere with signaling pathways important for the clonal expansion of lymphocytes.
Endotoxins are part of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria. Some of the diseases in which
endotoxins may play a part are typhoid fever, tularemia, plague and brucellosis, and a variety of hospitalacquired infections caused by opportunistic Gram-negative pathogens. Endotoxin is a complex
lipopolysaccharide that displays a large array of biological effects.
Although all immunoglobulin molecules are constructed from a basic unit of two heavy and two light
chains, both IgM and IgA can form multimers. IgM molecules are found as pentamers, and occasionally
hexamers, in plasma, and IgA is found in mucous secretions, but not plasma, as a dimer. IgM and IgA C
regions contain a "tailpiece" of 18 amino acids that contains a cysteine residue essential for
polymerization. In the case of IgA, polymerization is required for transport through epithelia.
Question 29 of 40
Dreaming can occur in several sleep stages, but is most common in which of the
following stages?
(A) Stage 1
(B) Stage 2
(C) Stage 3
(D) REM
(E) Stage 4
D REM
Sleep comprises approximately 1/3 of our lives and its function is far from being completely understood. Normally,
sleep is an active (not passive) process where the brain activity fluctuates over about 45 cycles per night. Distinct
sleep stages can be measured by EEG as patients pass through stages 1-4 (non-REM) and then enter REM
sleep. Patients enter REM sleep (dream sleep) approximately every 90 minutes and the duration of this stage
lengthens as the night progresses.
The characteristic EEG pattern of the various sleep stages is listed below along with some physiological
observations.
Waking - alpha waves (8-12 cps)
NREM Sleep - (Nonrapid eye movement) - low level of activity: lowered BP, heart rate, temperature, and
respiratory rate. Good muscle tone and slow, drifting eye movements.
Stage 1 - lightest sleep, a transition stage; low voltage, desynchronized waves.
Stage 2 - sleep spindles, (13-15 cps) and high spikes (K complexes).
Stage 3 - some delta waves (high voltage at 0.5-2.5 cps).
Stage 4 - deepest sleep, mostly in first half of night; mostly delta waves.
REM Sleep - active sleep characterized by rapid synchronous eye movement, twitching of facial and extremity
muscles, penile erections, and variation in pulse, BP, and respiratory rate. Muscular paralysis is present. Depth is
similar to stage 2. Dreaming can occur in several stages but is most common in REM sleep.
Question 30 of 40
The efficacy of a drug represents
(A) The potency of the drug
(B) The EC50 of the drug response
(C) The therapeutic index of the drug
(D) A measure of the maximal agonist effect
(E) The affinity a drug has for a receptor
D A measure of the maximal agonist effect
Efficacy is a term used to describe the ability of an agonist to elicit a maximal response. It is a pharmacological
parameter used to signify the relation between occupancy of receptor sites and the pharmacological response.
Drugs may have any degree of efficacy greater than zero, with zero efficacy denoting an antagonist. Full agonists
have higher efficacy than partial agonists because the latter do not elicit the maximal response of full agonists
occupying the same number of receptor sites.
Potency is the relative amount of a drug required to produce a given response. It is usually illustrated by a graph
of ED50 values of two agonists. The smaller the ED50, the more potent the drug.
The therapeutic index is a measure used to relate the dose of a drug needed to produce a desired effect to that
which produces an undesired effect. It evaluates the safety and usefulness of a drug and is the ratio of the
LD50/ED50.
Affinity is term denoting the ability of a drug to bind to a receptor. A drug can bind to a receptor and not produce a
pharmacological response.
Question 31 of 40
A 58-year-old man is very unhappy with the medical care he received from a surgeon
and decides to file a lawsuit against him. Which one of the following can be a
legitimate reason to recover damages in a suit against a health care provider under
negligence tort law?
(A) Breach of confidentiality
(B) Fraud or deceit
(C) Economic loss by the plaintiff
(D) Bad faith breach of contract
(E) Direct causation of effect by the defendant's negligence
E Direct causation of effect by the defendant's negligence
Negligence torts against health care providers must fulfill four criteria for success. A duty, or obligation, by the
defendant (health care provider) must be owed to the plaintiff (patient). Dereliction of duty, or performance
significantly below the standard of care, must have occurred. The plaintiff must have been damaged by the action
in a physical or psychological manner, or via loss of reputation. Economic losses are not generally recoverable.
The defendant's negligence must be the direct and proximate cause of the plaintiff's injuries. Fraud or deceit on
the part of the defendant is grounds for deliberate torts. Other types of deliberate torts are battery, assault, breach
of confidentiality, and bad faith breach of contract.
Question 32 of 40
You are interested in learning more about the genetic structure of immunoglobulins.
You arrange to work in a research lab and discover that a significant difference
occurs between the antibodies produced when a protein is injected into a rabbit and
those produced by a cloned hybridoma cell. A major difference is that the antibodies
produced from a
(A) Rabbit are all directed towards the same epitope on the protein
(B) Cloned hybridoma cell cannot be of the IgG class
(C) Cloned hybridoma cell are of a single class and directed towards the same epitope in the protein
(D) Rabbit are composed of many immunoglobulin classes, but all directed towards the same epitope in the
protein
(E) cloned hybridoma cell are of many immunoglobulin classes, but all directed towards the same epitope in
the protein
C Cloned hybridoma cell are of a single class and directed towards the same epitope in
the protein
Monoclonal antibodies are antibodies produced by a cloned hybridoma cell in culture. Therefore, each antibody is
identical and directed towards the same epitope of the antigen. An epitope is the antigenic determinant. A protein
can have many epitopes. In contrast, polyclonal antibodies, such as those obtained after injection of the protein
into a rabbit or a goat, are heterogeneous. These antibody molecules are produced by different B-lymphocytes in
the animal in response to the antigen. This represents a mixture of different antibodies each of which recognizes
different epitopes on the antigen.
Question 33 of 40
Which of the following structures has the primary function as a barrier and selective
filter within the renal corpuscle
(A) Podocytes
(B) Pedicel processes
(C) Glomerular basement membrane
(D) Intraglomerular mesangial basement membrane
(E) Juxtaglomerular pores
C Glomerular basement membrane
The basement membrane of the glomerulus is formed by the fused basal lamina of the podocyte foot processes
and the endothelial cells of the glomerulus. The membrane contains Type IV collagen which acts as a physical
barrier to large particles such as proteins or albumen during filtration. In addition to size of the molecule,
glycosaminoglycans associated with the basement membrane restrict the movement of smaller sized cationic
molecules across the membrane.
Podocytes are modified simple squamous cells that comprise the visceral layer of Bowman's capsule. These cells
also possess foot processes, or pedicels that extend around the glomerular capillaries and interdigitate with the
pedicels of neighboring podocytes.
Capillary endothelial cells line the glomerular capillary upon which the podocytes reside.
The outer layer of simple squamous epithelial cells of Bowman's capsule comprise the parietal layer, which is
continuous with the cuboidal epithelium of the proximal convoluted tubule at the urinary pole.
Mesangial cells also are found in association with the renal corpuscle; most within the corpuscle as
intraglomerular mesangial cells, but some outside of the corpuscle along the vascular pole. The mesangial cells
function as phagocytic cells and provide structural support for podocytes.
Smooth muscle cells circling the afferent arteriole of the glomerulus are modified and contain secretory granules of
renin. These modified muscle cells are called the juxtaglomerular cells and are best visualized with histochemical
stain for the renin.
Question 34 of 40
The product of this enzyme is norepinephrine
(A) Monoamine oxidase (MAO)
(B) Phenethanolamine-N-methyltransferase (PNMT)
(C) Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)
(D) Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
D Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
Monoamine oxidase (MAO) and catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) are involved in the degradation of
catecholamines. MAO is present in the mitochondria of several tissues and catalyzes the oxidative deamination of
catecholamines and other biogenic amines. COMT metabolizes catecholamines by transferring a methyl group
from S-adenosylmethionine to its substrate. COMT is mainly found in the liver and the kidney. Dopamine betahydroxylase and phenethanolamine-N-methyltransferase (PNMT) are involved in the synthesis of catecholamines.
Dopamine beta-hydroxylase forms norepinephrine and norepinephrine is converted to epinephrine by the action of
PNMT, an enzyme which is exclusively found in the adrenal medulla.
Question 35 of 40
A 54-year-old woman has accepted your recommendation that she undergo
hysterectomy for a uterine malignancy. At her pre-operative visit you review with her
the specifics of the procedure, the risks and benefits of having the surgery, and the
expected outcome. She then signs the standard operative consent provided by your
hospital. With regards to informed consent, which of the following statements is true?
(A) A second opinion is needed for fully informed consent in the case of a life threatening illness
(B) Informed consent is primarily a safeguard for the physician against medical liability claims
(C) It is not acceptable to try to convince the patient to have surgery if she objects to that form of treatment
(D) The essential elements of informed consent are the patient's autonomy and comprehension
(E) You have met the legal and ethical requirements of obtaining informed consent by having her sign the
approved form
D The essential elements of informed consent are the patient's autonomy and
comprehension
The ethical elements of informed consent require that the patient be adequately informed about the proposed
treatment, its risks and benefits, as well as the risks and benefits of alternatives, to include no treatment at all. It
further requires that she give her consent freely.
The ethical basis of informed consent is that it is a process that recognizes that patient's benefit from participating
in making decisions about their healthcare. It recognizes that each person has the right of self-determination
(autonomy). In addition to autonomy, human beings exist in a variety of relationships with others. The physicianpatient relationship has a powerful effect upon how the patient makes healthcare decisions. A relationship of trust,
mutual respect, and equality will provide the context for decisions that contribute positively to the patient's well
being.
The physician must not coerce the patient into accepting the treatment that (s)he favors by counseling in a
deceptive or biased manner. However, the physician may give reasons why one medical option is favored over
another. And there is room for disagreement among the medical community with regards to which option is most
appropriate. A second opinion may be desirable when faced with a serious decision, but it is not a requirement.
The legal criteria for informed consent varies from state to state. Documentation may have legal significance, but it
does not necessarily protect against medical liability claims. Neither does simply obtaining a signature fulfill the
ethical principle of respect for persons.
Question 36 of 40
A 70-year-old woman is referred to you by the primary physician at the nursing home
facility where she resides. She has been refusing to leave her room, says that
people are following her, and even refuses to go out with her daughter. She has a
long history of mental illness and says that her ex-husband had her committed to a
state hospital, where she resided for over thirty years. When asked why, she
believed her husband was trying to kill her. Based on this history and findings, what
would be your provisional diagnosis?
(A) Schizophrenia, catatonic type
(B) Schizophrenia, paranoid type
(C) Schizophrenia, residual type
(D) Schizophrenia, disorganized type
(E) Schizophrenia, undifferentiated type
B Schizophrenia, paranoid type
Patients with schizophrenia, paranoid type usually appear normal in that disorganized speech, disorganized
behavior, flat affect, and catatonic behavior are not prominent. However, they are usually able to take care of
themselves and their daily lives are not very disruptive. They do, however, present with a theme of suspiciousness
or paranoia and have delusions of persecution that someone is trying to do harm, poisoning their food, following
them, or trying to kill them.
Schizophrenia, disorganized type has prominent symptoms of disorganized speech and behavior. They usually
talk gibberish, and are not usually able to take care of themselves. They have very poor personal hygiene and
appearance. Again, hallucinations and delusions are not prominent.
Schizophrenia, catatonic type patients have the stupor or retarded immobility and are sometimes mute, or display
very negative speech. They have bizarre posturing and grimacing.
Schizophrenia, undifferentiated type, does not meet the criteria for the other types and it is a diagnosis of
exclusion. It is for patients that do not have the prominent symptoms of catatonic, paranoia, or disorganized
behaviors.
Schizophrenia, residual type is a diagnosis that is given to patients who at one time had one of the other types but
have been treated and whose symptoms are no further pronounced. It often is applied to patients who have been
treated and now they are in the process of partial remission.
Question 37 of 40
A 47-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of markedly
increased feelings of stress secondary to recent changes at his workplace. Which of
the following statements about stress and its health effects is true?
(A) Stress does not include emotionally negative responses such as anger and hostility
(B) It is a factor in 10-20% of health problems
(C) Assertiveness training is unlikely to help an individual to avoid stress
(D) It is in the differential diagnosis for diarrhea
(E) It is the third leading cause of disability claims in California
D It is in the differential diagnosis for diarrhea
The definition of stress is an individual's negative emotional response to a perceived inability to meet demands
place on him or her. It may express itself as anger, hostility, or feelings of helplessness, loss of control, or
victimization. It is believed to be a factor in 60-80% of all health problems, and is the leading cause of disability
claims in California. Major symptoms include fatigue, exhaustion, tight back and shoulders, insomnia, anxiety,
anger, headaches, depression, sadness, hopelessness, colds, indigestion, diarrhea, and ulcer symptoms.
Effective prevention and avoidance techniques include assertiveness training and the development of
communication skills. Treatment methods include relaxation techniques, meditation, exercise, and participation in
enjoyable activities.
Question 38 of 40
The primary function of a cell demonstrating an abundance of smooth endoplasmic
reticulum (sER) within the cytoplasm would be:
(A) Glycogen metabolism
(B) Muscle contraction
(C) Depolarization and conduction
(D) Antibody synthesis
(E) Oxygen transport
A Glycogen metabolism
Smooth ER (sER), when viewed by an electron microscope, appears as a complex system of anastomosing or
dilated tubules, but without association with ribosomes. Cells which contain substantial amounts of SER in the
cytoplasm are associated with functions relating to glycogen metabolism, steroid synthesis, or drug metabolism.
Cells associated with muscle contraction may contain small amounts of SER in the cytoplasm, but the
predominant intracellular feature of these cells are actin and myosin filaments. Similarly, nerve cells, or their
processes, may contain SER, but the predominant form of ER present in cells associated with depolarization and
conduction would be rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). Antibody synthesis, such as performed by a plasma
cell, shows extensive RER in the cytoplasm. A cell that is associated with oxygen transport, such as the
erythrocyte, would have few cytoplasmic organelles.
Question 39 of 40
Select the statement that describes the antibody structure correctly
(A) Light chain that is different to all class of antibody
(B) Heavy chain is common for each class and subclass
(D) Light chain has one variable and one constant region
(E) Fc fragment is on amino terminal
(E) Antigen binding site is present on carboxy terminal of the antibody molecule
C Light chain has one variable and one constant region
The basic unit of an antibody is made up of two light chain and two heavy chains.
Equal number of heavy and light chain polypeptides are present in every immunoglobulin molecule and can be
represented by the formula:- (H2L2)n. The polypeptide chains are linked covalently by disulfide bonds. Additional
characteristics of structure of an antibody molecule are as follows:
•Consists of light chain that is common to all class
•Heavy chain is different for each class and subclass
•Light chain has one variable and one constant region
•Fc fragment is on carboxy terminal
•Antigen binding site is present on carboxy terminal of the antibody molecule
Question 40 of 40
Sweat glands are innervated by
(A) Parasympathetic cholinergic postganglionic fibers
(B) Sympathetic cholinergic postganglionic fibers
(C) Sympathetic adrenergic postganglionic fibers
(D) Parasympathetic cholinergic preganglionic fibers
(E) Sympathetic cholinergic preganglionic fibers
B Sympathetic cholinergic postganglionic fibers
Although most of the sympathetic postganglionic fibers are adrenergic, the fibers to the sweat glands, piloerector
muscles and a few blood vessels are cholinergic. The parasympathetic nervous system does not innervate sweat
glands.