Transcript Mesosaurus
Final Exam Review The area of Earth science that examines the physical and biological changes that have occurred in Earth’s past is called ____. A. meteorology C.physical geology B.oceanography D.historical geology D.historical geology Earth’s four major spheres are the ____. A. hydrosphere, atmosphere, geosphere, and biosphere B. hydrosphere, atmosphere, lithosphere, and biosphere C. hydrosphere, asthenosphere, lithosphere, and biosphere D. hydrosphere, geosphere, lithosphere, and asthenosphere A. hydrosphere, atmosphere, geosphere, and biosphere The theory of plate tectonics helps scientists explain ____. A. how ocean currents move over Earth’s surface B. why hurricanes occur C. how earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur D. why Earth’s core is less dense than the mantle C. how earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur What is the driving force for the movement of the lithospheric plates? A. heat from the sun B. unequal distribution of heat within Earth C. heat in the atmosphere D. unequal distribution of heat in the oceans B. unequal distribution of heat within Earth According to the plate tectonics model, what layers form Earth’s rigid, mobile plates? A. inner and outer core C. crust only B. upper and lower mantle D. crust and uppermost mantle D. crust and uppermost mantle The distance, measured in degrees, north and south of the equator is referred to as ____. A. longitude C. the prime meridian B. latitude D. the poles B. latitude On the global grid, the prime meridian is at ____. A. 0 degrees latitude C. 0 degrees longitude B. 90 degrees latitude D. 90 degrees longitude C. 0 degrees longitude Earth is considered a system because all of its parts ____. A. represent separate closed systems B. interact C. were formed at the same time D. are powered by the same energy source B. interact Which of the following would be one of the interacting parts in a weather system? A. weather satellite C. clouds B. tectonic plate D. Earth’s inner core C. clouds Which of the following is NOT caused by human interactions with the Earth system? A. air pollution C. mountain building B. water pollution D. deforestation C. mountain building Which of the following is NOT an example of a renewable resource? A. cotton C. chicken B. lumber d. iron d. iron A scientific idea that is well tested and widely accepted by the scientific community is called a scientific ____. A. hypothesis C. theory B. inquiry D. method C. theory In scientific inquiry, when competing hypotheses have been eliminated, a hypothesis may be elevated to the status of a scientific ____. A. estimate C. theory B. idea D. truth C. theory Which of the following is true about rocks? A. Rocks are composed of only one mineral. B. Rocks do not contain any nonmineral matter. C. Coal is not considered a true rock. D. Most rocks are a mixture of minerals. D. Most rocks are a mixture of minerals. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a rock? A. coal C. pumice B. sandstone D. lava D. lava Where is the energy source found that drives the processes that form igneous and metamorphic rocks? A. the sun C. Earth’s interior B. the wind D. moving water C. Earth’s interior A rock that forms when magma hardens beneath Earth’s surface is called an ____. A. intrusive metamorphic rock B. intrusive igneous rock C. extrusive sedimentary rock D. extrusive igneous rock B. intrusive igneous rock Which of the following is an example of an extrusive igneous rock? A. rhyolite C. andesite B. granite D. coal A. rhyolite The igneous rock texture that is characterized by two distinctly different crystal sizes is called ____. A. coarse-grained texture C. glassy texture B. fine-grained texture D. porphyritic texture D. porphyritic texture Lava that cools so quickly that ions do not have time to arrange themselves into crystals will form igneous rocks with a ____. A. porphyritic texture C. coarse-grained texture B. glassy texture D. fine-grained texture B. glassy texture A conglomerate is a rock that forms as a result of ____. A. intense heat and pressure C. rapid cooling B. compaction and cementation D. slow cooling B. compaction and cementation Which of the following is a use for fossils found in sedimentary rocks? A. interpreting past environments B. indicating when the rock formed C. matching rocks of the same age found in different places D. all of the above D. all of the above Sedimentary rocks with ripple marks suggest that the rocks formed ____. A. along a beach or stream bed B. when ancient animals walked over them C. from the shell fragments of ancient sea-dwelling animals D. when wet mud dried and shrank A. along a beach or stream bed In which of the following settings would a metamorphic rock most likely form? A. an ocean floor C. 8 kilometers below Earth’s surface B. a desert D. on the slopes of an active volcano C. 8 kilometers below Earth’s surface What rock-forming process occurs when hot magma forces its way into rock? A. regional metamorphism C. contact metamorphism B. biochemical sedimentation D. deposition C. contact metamorphism Which of the following is NOT an agent of metamorphism? A. heat C. pressure B. running water D. a hydrothermal solution B. running water A foliated metamorphic rock forms when crystals ____. A. combine and form visible bands B. combine but do not form visible bands C. become less compact D. align themselves parallel to the direction of the forces acting on them A. combine and form visible bands Which of the following is NOT associated with mechanical weathering? A. frost wedging C. biological activity B. unloading D. reactions with oxygen D. reactions with oxygen When water freezes, its volume ____. A. decreases slightly C. stays the same B. increases D. decreases greatly B. increases Which of the following is the result of chemical weathering? A. a rock that has been changed into one or more new compounds B. a rock that has been broken into tiny pieces C. a rock that has been split in two D. a rock that has lost its outer layers A. a rock that has been changed into one or more new compounds The atmospheric gas that forms a mild acid when dissolved in water is ____. A. carbon dioxide C. aluminum B. oxygen D. sulfur A. carbon dioxide What would cause the inscription on a marble gravestone to become harder and harder to read over time? A. frost wedging C. exfoliation B. mechanical weathering D. chemical weathering D. chemical weathering Chemical weathering would be ____. A. most effective in a warm, dry climate B. most effective in a cold, dry climate C. most effective in a warm, humid climate D. equally effective in any climate C. most effective in a warm, humid climate Which of the following is NOT a major component of soil? A. mineral matter C. humus B. air D. earthworms D. earthworms How are soil horizons ordered from the top of the profile to the bottom? A. A, C, B C. C, B, A B. A, B, C D. B, A, C B. A, B, C The B horizon is also called the ____. A. topsoil C. partially altered parent material B. unaltered parent material D. subsoil D. subsoil Which of the following human activities has caused an increase in soil erosion? A. clear-cut logging C. plowing land for farming B. clearing land for construction D. all of the above D. all of the above The process responsible for moving material downslope under the influence of gravity is called ____. A. erosion C. mass movement B. weathering D. soil formation C. mass movement A mass movement that involves the sudden movement of a block of material along a flat, inclined surface is called a ____. A. slide C. slump B. rockfall D. flow A. slide Alternate freezing and thawing often leads to ____. A. creep C. mudflows B. slumps D. earthflows A. creep Plants release water into the atmosphere through a process called ____. A. evaporation C. infiltration B. transpiration D. precipitation B. transpiration Balance in the water cycle means that ____. A. the average annual precipitation over Earth equals the amount of water that evaporates B. water that falls to Earth only enters oceans C. the amount of water that falls to Earth weighs the same as the amount that condenses in clouds D. water that evaporates from Earth’s surface remains forever in the atmosphere A. the average annual precipitation over Earth equals the amount of water that evaporates The average annual precipitation worldwide must equal the quantity of water ____. A. evaporated C. infiltrated B. transpired D. locked in glaciers A. evaporated If you were to examine the profile of a typical stream, you would probably find that the gradient is ____. A. steepest near the mouth B. steepest near the head C. about the same at both the head and the mouth D. gentler near the head B. steepest near the head A natural levee is ____. A. an erosional feature perpendicular to the stream channel B. a depositional feature perpendicular to the stream channel C. an erosional feature parallel to the stream channel D. a depositional feature parallel to the stream channel D. a depositional feature parallel to the stream channel One traditional flood control method has been to attempt to keep the stream’s flow within its channel by creating ____. A. meanders C. artificial levees B. artificial cutoffs D. flood control dams C. artificial levees Groundwater is found underground in the zone of ____. A. aeration C. saturation B. soil D. sediment C. saturation Permeable rock layers or sediments that transmit groundwater freely are called ____. A. aquifers C. caverns B. aquitards D. springs A. aquifers Groundwater contaminated by sewage from a ruptured septic tank can sometimes be naturally purified by flowing for a relatively short distance through a ____. A. sandstone aquifer B. fractured limestone aquifer C. cavernous limestone aquifer D. spring where the water table intersects the ground surface A. sandstone aquifer A cavern is an underground chamber formed by ____. A. erosion C. evaporation B. deposition D. runoff A. erosion Icebergs are produced when large pieces of ice break off from the front of a glacier during a process called ____. A. wastage C. accumulation B. plucking D. calving D. calving A bowl-shaped depression at the head of a glacial valley is a(n) ____. A. glacial trough C. horn B. arête d. cirque d. cirque What force causes most of the erosion in desert areas? A. wind C. running water B. gravity D. ice C. running water What is the main type of weathering in deserts? A. chemical weathering C. weathering by organic acids B. physical weathering D. weathering by water B. physical weathering In desert areas, what process results in the formation of a desert pavement? A. abrasion C. deflation b. ephemeral stream flow D. plucking C. deflation Which of the following is NOT deposited by wind? A. till C. loess B. barchan sand dunes D. longitudinal dunes A. till Dunes whose tips point into the wind are called ____. A. barchan dunes C. transverse dunes B. longitudinal dunes D. parabolic dunes D. parabolic dunes A fault is ____. A. a place on Earth where earthquakes cannot occur B. a fracture in the Earth where movement has occurred C. the place on Earth’s surface where structures move during an earthquake D. another name for an earthquake B. a fracture in the Earth where movement has occurred Major earthquakes are sometimes preceded by smaller earthquakes called ____. A. aftershocks C. surface waves B. focus shocks D. foreshocks D. foreshocks A seismogram shows that P waves travel ____. A. at the same speed as surface waves B. more slowly than S waves C. at the same speed as S waves D. faster than S waves D. faster than S waves The amount of shaking produced by an earthquake at a given location is called the ____. A. intensity C. epicenter B. magnitude D. Richter magnitude A. intensity The trace that records an earthquake from seismic instruments is called a ____. A. seismograph C. richtergram B. seismogram D. magnitude B. seismogram The Richter magnitude of an earthquake is determined from the ____. A. duration of an earthquake B. intensity of an earthquake C. arrival times of P waves and S waves D. measurement of the amplitude of the largest seismic waves D. measurement of the amplitude of the largest seismic waves Why do earthquakes often cause damaging fires? A. Lightning strikes are common during earthquakes. B. Earthquake vibrations can break gas lines, water lines, and electrical lines. C. Tsunamis from earthquakes generate enough heat to start fires. D. Magma from deep underground escapes through faults. B. Earthquake vibrations can break gas lines, water lines, and electrical lines. Long-range earthquake forecasts are based on the idea that earthquakes are ____. A. random C. fully understood B. destructive D. repetitive D. repetitive The Moho is ____. A. the boundary between the outer and inner core B. boundary between the crust and the mantle C. the material of which the mantle is composed D. an area of the mantle that will not transmit seismic waves B. boundary between the crust and the mantle The continental crust has the average composition of ____. A. gneiss C. basalt B. granite D. limestone B. granite Evidence that Earth’s core has a high iron content comes from ____. A. deep wells C. the study of earthquake waves B. deep-sea drilling D. meteorites D. meteorites What hypothesis states that the continents were once joined to form a single supercontinent? A. plate tectonics C. continental drift B. seafloor spreading D. paleomagnetism C. continental drift The geographic distribution of the swimming reptile Mesosaurus provides evidence that ____. A. Europe was covered by a shallow sea when Mesosaurus lived B. a land bridge existed between Australia and India C. South America and Africa were once joined D. the Atlantic Ocean was wider when Mesosaurus lived than it is now C. South America and Africa were once joined Which of the following statements correctly describes the asthenosphere? A. It is a thin, cold, and rigid layer. B. It is the source of Earth’s heat. C. It permits plate motion. D. It occurs only near subduction zones. C. It permits plate motion. A divergent boundary at two oceanic plates can result in a ____. A. rift valley C. continental volcanic arc B. volcanic island arc D. subduction zone A. rift valley New ocean crust is formed at ____. A. divergent boundaries C. continental volcanic arcs B. convergent boundaries D. transform fault boundaries A. divergent boundaries Deep ocean trenches are associated with ____. A. ocean ridge systems C. transform fault boundaries B. subduction zones D. rift zones B. subduction zones The Hawaiian Islands were formed when the Pacific Plate moved over ____. A. a subduction zone C. the Aleutian Plate B. an ocean ridge D. a hot spot D. a hot spot Which one of the following has NOT been proposed as a mechanism of plate motion? A. slab-pull C. mantle convection B. ridge-push D. crust-core convection D. crust-core convection The thermal convection that drives plate motion is caused by ____. A. seafloor spreading C. gravity B. an unequal distribution of heat D. subduction B. an unequal distribution of heat Approximately how much of Earth’s surface is covered by land? A. 30 percent C. 60 percent B. 50 percent D. 70 percent A. 30 percent Which submersible has been used for deep-sea research? A. SS Trinity C. Alvin B. Challenger D. SS Woods Hole C. Alvin What technology do scientists use to measure ocean depth? A. sonar C. rope B. laser D. submersible A. sonar Which of the following currents is associated with downslope movements of dense sediment-rich water? A. avalanche current C. turbidity current B. density current D. longshore current C. turbidity current The gently sloping submerged surface extending from the shoreline toward the deep ocean is called ____. A. continental shelf C. continental rise B. continental slope D. submarine canyon A. continental shelf Important mineral deposits, including large reservoirs of oil and natural gas, are associated with ____. A. rift zones C. mid-ocean ridges B. ocean trenches D. continental shelves D. continental shelves Which of the following is NOT a zone included in the continental margin? A. continental slope C. continental coast B. continental rise D. continental shelf C. continental coast Which regions are thought to be the most level places on Earth? A. mid-ocean ridges C. deep-ocean trenches B. abyssal plains D. continental slopes B. abyssal plains Which type of sediment is made up mainly of the shells of diatoms and radiolarians? A. terrigenous sediment C. hydrogenous sediment B. siliceous ooze D. manganese nodules B. siliceous ooze When seawater evaporates, the concentration of salts increases until which of the following occurs? A. the salts float C. the salts condense B. the salts precipitate out of solution D. none of the above B. the salts precipitate out of solution What is the salinity of seawater? A. 1.5 percent C. 5.5 percent B. 3.5 percent D. 10 percent B. 3.5 percent What is the most abundant salt in the sea? A. calcium chloride C. potassium chloride B. magnesium chloride D. sodium chloride D. sodium chloride Salinity variations in the open ocean normally range from 33 percent to ____. A. 38 percent C. 60 percent B. 45 percent D. 83 percent A. 38 percent What is the second major source of elements in seawater? A. Earth’s interior C. lakes B. solar radiation D. meteorites A. Earth’s interior What term describes organisms that live on or in the ocean floor? A. benthos C. nekton B. pelagic D. plankton A. benthos Marine organisms are classified according to how they ____. A. live C. eat B. move D. live and move D. live and move Which of the following is a type of plankton? A. shark C. squid B. algae D. crab B. algae How do plankton differ from nekton? A. Plankton are strong swimmers. C. Plankton are carnivores. B. Plankton are floaters. D. Plankton live on the ocean bottom. B. Plankton are floaters. Which of the following best describes the ocean bottom? A. cold C. dark B. quiet D. all of the above D. all of the above How do animals survive in the deeper parts of the seafloor? A. They feed on each other. C. They photosynthesize. B. They feed at the surface. D. none of the above A. They feed on each other. Which ocean zone does sunlight penetrate? A. neritic zone C. photic zone B. aphotic zone D. abyssal zone C. photic zone How is chemical energy transferred from algae to marine animals? A. swimming C. reproducing B. feeding D. none of the above B. feeding All the complex feeding relationships among a number of different organisms is known as a(n) ____. A. food series C. food chain B. ecosystem D. food web D. food web A food chain is the passage of energy ____. A. among many interactive organisms C. between herbivores only B. along a single path D. between primary producers B. along a single path Which force is involved in the development of surface currents? A. gravity C. friction B. inertia D. none of the above C. friction Ocean currents that move toward the poles are ____. A. warm B. cold C. warm in the Northern Hemisphere and cold in the Southern Hemisphere D. cold in the Northern Hemisphere and warm in the Southern Hemisphere A. warm What causes surface ocean currents to be deflected? A. deep currents C. Earth’s revolution B. the Coriolis effect D. global winds B. the Coriolis effect Density currents move ____. A. horizontally C. from north to south B. vertically D. from south to north B. vertically The vertical distance between trough and crest is called the ____. A. wave height C. fetch B. wavelength D.wave period A. wave height What is NOT true about ocean waves? A. They get their energy from wind. B. They transfer energy without matter as a medium. C. The greater the wind speed is, the higher the wave is. D. They can travel long distances. B. They transfer energy without matter as a medium. Which of the following is visible evidence of energy passing through water? A. wave C. Coriolis effect B. sea arch D. density tide A. wave Which of the following is NOT true about a wave in the open ocean? A. Water particles move in a circular path. B. The wave form moves forward, but the water particles do not advance appreciably. C. Water particles travel with the wave. D. As the wave travels, water particles pass the energy along by moving in a circle. C. Water particles travel with the wave. The smallest daily tidal range occurs during which type of tide? A. spring tide C. neap tide B. flood tide D. ebb tide C. neap tide Waves in shallow water become bent and begin to run parallel to shore, a process known as ____. A. oscillation C. reflection B. refraction D. erosion B. refraction What happens to waves when there is refraction in bays? A. They spread out. C. They erode headlands. B. They expend less energy. D. both a and b D. both a and b Which of the following decreases beach erosion without the construction of protective structures? A. seawall C. groin B. beach nourishment D. breakwater B. beach nourishment Which of the following structures is built to protect boats from large breaking waves? A. jetty C. breakwater B. groin D. seawall C. breakwater What is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere? A. oxygen C. carbon dioxide B. nitrogen D. hydrogen B. nitrogen Which of the following terms best describes air? A. element C. mixture B. compound D. none of the above C. mixture What is the lowest layer of the atmosphere? A. thermosphere C. stratosphere B. troposphere D. mesosphere B. troposphere When does the summer solstice occur in the Northern Hemisphere? A. June 21 C. September 21 B. March 21 D. December 21 A. June 21 When air transfers energy to a cooler object, what happens to the air temperature? A. It increases. C. It stays the same. B. It decreases. D. It fluctuates. B. It decreases. Which electromagnetic waves have the longest wavelengths? A. radio C. gamma B. infrared D. ultraviolet A. radio What process describes the transfer of heat through matter by molecular activity? A. conduction C. radiation B. convection D. evaporation A. conduction A metal spoon becomes hot after being left in a pan of boiling water. This is an example of ____. A. convection C. radiation B. conduction D. reflection B. conduction On average, how much of the sun’s energy that reaches Earth’s outer atmosphere is reflected back into space? A. 10 percent C. 30 percent B. 20 percent D. 50 percent C. 30 percent The two most important heat-absorbing gases in the lower atmosphere are ____. A. oxygen and nitrogen C. argon and hydrogen B. ozone and chlorofluorocarbon D. water vapor and carbon dioxide D. water vapor and carbon dioxide At night, clouds act as a blanket by ____. A. absorbing incoming radiation C. reflecting incoming radiation B. absorbing outgoing radiation D. reflecting outgoing radiation B. absorbing outgoing radiation The change of state from a gas to a liquid is called ____. A. evaporation C. condensation B. sublimation D. deposition C. condensation The process of converting a liquid to a gas is known as ____. A. evaporation C. condensation B. sublimation D. deposition A. evaporation What is true about relative humidity? A. It indicates how near the air is to saturation. B. It indicates the actual quantity of water vapor in the air. C. It is the general term used to describe the amount of water vapor in air. D. It is the temperature to which a parcel of air would need to be cooled to reach saturation. A. It indicates how near the air is to saturation. Which of the following refers to the temperature to which air would have to be cooled to reach saturation? A. dew point C. adiabatic rate B. vapor D. relative point A. dew point Which of the following occurs when air is compressed? A. Air temperature rises. C. Air molecules move faster. B. Air temperature cools. D. both a and c D. both a and c Orographic lifting is associated with ____. A. mountains C. flat plains B. rivers D. fronts A. mountains Which of the following will NOT cause air to become unstable? A. intense solar heating that warms the air from below b. forceful lifting of air C. upward movement caused by general convergence D. subsidence of an air column D. subsidence of an air column Which of the following would NOT be associated with stable atmospheric conditions? A. widespread fog C. temperature inversion B. afternoon thunderstorms D. buildup of pollutants B. afternoon thunderstorms What is true about stable air? A. It tends to rise. B. It tends to resist rising. C. It is associated with severe storms. D. It is never associated with precipitation. B. It tends to resist rising. Which cloud type is best described as sheets or layers that cover much or all of the sky? A. cumulus C. stratus B. cirrus D. alto C. stratus Which term is used to describe clouds of middle height? A. cumulus C. stratus B. cirrus D. alto D. alto Compared to clouds, fogs are ____. A. colder C. at lower altitudes B. of a different composition D. drier C. at lower altitudes Which of the following processes can produce either rain or snow? A. the Bergeron process B. the collision-coalescence process C. both the Bergeron process and the collision-coalescence process D. none of the above A. the Bergeron process What type of cloud is associated with hail? A. cirrocumulus C. nimbostratus B. cumulonimbus D. altostratus B. cumulonimbus Which form of precipitation is likely to occur when a layer of air with temperatures above freezing overlies a subfreezing layer near the ground? A. rain C. snow B. sleet D. hail B. sleet The force exerted by the weight of the air above is called ____. A. air pressure C. the Coriolis effect B. convergence D. divergence A. air pressure Which of these instruments is NOT used to measure air pressure? A. mercury barometer C. anemometer B. aneroid D. All are used to measure air pressure. C. anemometer Standard sea level pressure in millibars is ____. A. 750.1 C. 1000 B. 980.5 D. 1013.2 D. 1013.2 A steep pressure gradient ____. A. would be depicted by widely spaced isobars B. produces strong winds C. is only possible in the tropics D. produces light winds B. produces strong winds Fast-moving currents of air that occur above the friction layer are called ____. A. wind trains C. chinooks B. mesocyclones D. jet streams D. jet streams High-altitude, high-velocity “rivers” of air are called ____. A. cyclones C. anticyclones B. jet streams D. tornadoes B. jet streams The deflection of wind due to the Coriolis effect is strongest at ____. A. the equator C. midnight B. the midlatitudes D. the poles D. the poles In the Northern Hemisphere, winds associated with a low-pressure system blow ____. A. counterclockwise toward the center B. clockwise toward the center C. clockwise outward from the center D. counterclockwise outward from the center A. counterclockwise toward the center Centers of low pressure are called ____. A. anticyclones C. jet streams B. air masses D. cyclones D. cyclones Which of the following does NOT describe the surface air movement of a Northern Hemisphere low? A. inward C. net upward movement B. counterclockwise D. divergent D. divergent Seasonal changes in wind direction associated with large landmasses and adjacent water bodies are called ____. A. polar fronts C. monsoons B. jet streams D. trade winds C. monsoons Which surface winds blow between the subtropical high and the equator? A. trade winds C. sea breezes B. polar easterlies D. westerlies A. trade winds Near the equator, rising air is associated with a pressure zone known as the ____. A. equatorial high C. tropical low B. equatorial low D. tropical high B. equatorial low Valley and mountain breezes are examples of ____. A. global winds C. local winds B. trade winds D. jet streams C. local winds When is a sea breeze most intense? A. during mid- to late afternoon C. in the late morning B. in the late evening D. at sunrise A. during mid- to late afternoon A wind that consistently blows more often from one direction than from any other is called a ____. A. local wind C. trade wind B. prevailing wind D. jet stream B. prevailing wind Which instrument is used to measure wind speed? A. anemometer C. thermometer B. barometer D. all of the above A. anemometer Which phenomenon is associated with surface temperatures in the eastern Pacific that are colder than average? A. La Niña C. global warming B. El Niño D. local winds A. La Niña An immense body of air characterized by similar properties at any given altitude is known as a(n) ____. A. cyclone C. anticyclone B. air mass D. front B. air mass When an active cold front overtakes a warm front, ____. A. the fronts cancel each other out C. an occluded front forms B. cloud formation ceases D. a stationary front forms C. an occluded front forms Along a front, which type of air is always forced upwards? A. cooler, denser air C. the driest air B. warmer, less dense air D. the wettest air B. warmer, less dense air The weather behind a cold front is dominated by which of the following? A. cold air mass C. mixed air mass B. warm air mass D. none of the above A. cold air mass Which of the following best describes the pressure in a middle-latitude cyclone? A. Pressure decreases toward the center. B. Pressure remains the same everywhere. C. Pressure increases toward the center. D. The pressure is not predictable. A. Pressure decreases toward the center. Thunderstorms form when warm, humid air rises in a(n) ____. A. unstable environment C. clockwise spiral B. stable environment D. counterclockwise spiral A. unstable environment Which of the following would likely have the greatest range of pressure? A. tornado C. hurricane B. middle-latitude cyclone D. All have the same pressure. A. tornado Tornadoes are most frequent from ____. A. January to March C. October to December B. April to June D. July to August B. April to June Hurricanes form in tropical waters between the latitudes of ____. A. 0 and 5 degrees C. 20 and 30 degrees B. 5 and 20 degrees D. 30 and 40 degrees B. 5 and 20 degrees What causes a hurricane to lose energy when it moves onto land? A. friction C. heating from below by land B. lack of warm, moist air D. both a and b D. both a and b Which ancient astronomer developed a geocentric model of the universe explaining the observable motions of the planets? A. Aristotle C. Copernicus B. Ptolemy D. Newton B. Ptolemy Aristotle concluded that Earth was round because ____. A. it always casts a curved shadow during a lunar eclipse B. he sailed around the world C. he calculated Earth’s circumference D. it exhibited retrograde motion A. it always casts a curved shadow during a lunar eclipse According to the ancients, the stars traveled around Earth on the transparent, hollow ____. A. equatorial plane C. solar orb B. celestial sphere D. ellipse B. celestial sphere