Transcript PPT
OB Review
QUESTIONS
YOU COULD
SEE ON THE
BOARDS
1. 18 year old college student presents to the student health center. She is
worried because she was with her boyfriend 4 nights ago and the condom broke.
What would be the most effective option, if any, for emergency contraception?
Nothing. Too late
levonorgestrel 1.5mg x 1 dose
Ulipristal (Ella) 30mg x 1 dose
Copper IUD (Paragard)
Combined oral contraceptive
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Question 1 Answers - D
• A. Not too late
• B. levonorgestrel 1.5mg = Plan B One-Step. Max
efficacy w/in 72h, mod efficacy w/in 120h. Similar
effectiveness to levonorgestrel 0.75mg BID
• C. ulipristal = Ella. Can be used w/in 120h of
unprotected intercourse
• D. Copper IUD = Paragard. Most effective method of
emergency contraception. May be used up to 7 days
after unprotected intercourse.
• E. Combined oral contraceptive pills - 2 doses taken
12 hours apart.
2. Which of the following is not an indication for intrapartum
antibiotic prophylaxis for Group B strep?
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History of GBS UTI with last
pregnancy
Rupture of membranes x 20
hours. Unknown GBS.
Fever of 101.2. GBS status
unknown
First child was hospitalized in
the nursery for GBS bacteremia
Spontaneous labor at 36 weeks
EGA. Unknown GBS.
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Question 2 Answers - A
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All pregnant women should be screened for GBS at 35-37 weeks by vaginal &
rectal swab.
Women who have had GBS in their urine during the current pregnancy or who
have had a previously infected infant do not need to be screened.
When GBS screening results are unavailable, treatment should be started if
EGA less than 37 weeks, rupture of membranes > or = 18 hours, or temp
greater than or equal to 100.4 F
Start antibiotics at the time of labor or rupture of membranes. As long as not in
labor, do not start antibiotics prior to C-section.
Penicillin is first choice for antibiotic; ampicillin also OK first choice
If PCN allergic and no h/o anaphylaxis, resp distress, or urticaria, can use
cefazolin (Ancef)
If PCN allergic with h/o anaphylaxis, order susceptibility testing and use
clindamycin if susceptible. If not, use vancomycin
3. Which of the following associations is false regarding
regional analgesia (epidural or spinal)
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Risk for post-dural puncture
headache.
Increased risk for instrumentassisted vaginal delivery
Risk of hypotension
Increased risk of C-section
Increased risk for maternal
fever
Regional analgesia provides
better pain relief than opioid
analgesia
Ri
A.
Question 3 Answers - D
• Postdural puncture headache is the most common complication of
regional analgesia. A blood patch may be offered.
• There is an increased risk for an instrument-assisted vaginal delivery
• There is an increased risk for maternal hypotension, which can result in
decreased placental perfusion. Occurs in 15%-33% of patients. A fluid
bolus or IV vasopressor (5-10 mg ephedrine) may help.
• There is no associated increased risk for cesarean section.
• Risk for maternal fever, whether a true fever vs hyperthermia, is
increased. The mechanism is not understood.
• Regional analgesia does provide better pain relief compared to opioid
analgesia.
• Continuous labor support (i.e. doula) has been shown to lead to greater
satisfaction with the childbirth experience and require less analgesia
during labor.
4. The drug of choice for treating an eclamptic seizure is:
Diazepam (Valium)
Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Labetalol
Magnesium sulfate
hydralazine
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Question 4 Answers - D
• Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for
initial and recurrent eclamptic seizures.
Start with 4-6 gram loading dose followed by
an infusion of 2 g/hr. May give an additional
2g bolus if seizure recurs.
5. Which of the following antihypertensive medications is contraindicated
during pregnancy?
Labetalol
Nifedipine
HCTZ
Methyldopa
Lisinopril
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Question 5 Answers - E
• Methyldopa, labetalol, and nifedipine are most commonly used to treat
HTN in pregnancy.
• Thiazide diuretics that were used prior to pregnancy may be continued.
• ACE inhibitors and ARBs have been associated with IUGR,
Contraindicated!
• High BP (over 140/90) prior to 20 wks EGA likely reflects chronic HTN.
• Treat high BP in pregnancy if BP in consistently 150/100 or higher.
Overtreating can lead to placental hypoperfusion.
• High BP (over 140/90) that develops after 20 wks EGA, with no
proteinuria or other signs of preeclampsia, is gestational hypertension.
• ~50% of women with gestation HTN will develop preeclampsia
Preeclampsia is defined by BP 140/90 or higher on 2
separate readings 4 hours apart PLUS proteinuria.
A. True
B. False
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Question 6 Answers - False
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Proteinuria is no longer required to have a diagnosis of preeclampsia. It is a
multiorgan disease process, typically with high BP and proteinuria OR other
severe feature of end organ damage. That would include severe headache,
vision changes, pulmonary edema, renal failure, elevated LFTs,
thrombocytopenia, etc.
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HELLP = hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. High BP not
necessary to meet the diagnosis.
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Seizure prophylaxis with magnesium is not required unless severe features
develop. If started, stop magnesium 24-48 hours after birth.
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Deliver at 37 weeks unless severe features present. If severe, delivery is
recommended.
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*The use of 80mg ASA during pregnancy has some positive effect on
preventing preeclampsia.
Resources
•
Bosworth, et al. An Update on Emergency Contraception. American Family Physician 2014; 89 (7): 545-550.
•
Verani,et al. Prevention of Perinatal Group B Streptococccal Disease: Revised Guidelines from CDC, 2010
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Schrock,et al. Labor Analgesia. American Family Physician 2012; 85(5): 447-454.
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Leeman, Dresang, et al. Hypertensive Disorders of Pregnancy. American Family Physician 2016; 93(2):121-127.