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AP PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Unit 3
Biology and Nature v Nurture
(9.9% of Past AP Tests)
74 Multiple Choice Questions (10.6%)
12 Essay Topics (8.3%)
AP 2006 Which of the following is considered the fundamental building
block of the nervous system?
a. Nucleus
b. Neuron
c. Synapse
d. Neurotransmitter
e. Electrical impulse
AP 1994 The primary effect of the myelin sheath is to
a. increase the velocity of conduction of the action potential along
the axon
b. increase the velocity of conduction of the action potential
across the synapse
c. facilitate the incoming stimulus signals at sensory receptors
d. reduce the amount of unused neurotransmitter in the synaptic
cleft
e. protect the terminal buttons of the neuron from destruction by
enzymes
AP 2013 Reuptake of a neurotransmitter refers to
a. absorption of the neurotransmitter into the dendrites of the
receiving neuron
b. absorption of the neurotransmitter into the terminal buttons of
the sending neuron
c. release of the neurotransmitter by the soma of the originating
neuron
d. the rate at which a neurotransmitter is created for use be a
neuron
e. the rate at which a neurotransmitter is broken down
metabolically in the neuron
AP 1994 Which of the following correctly describes the firing of neurons?
a. A protoplasmic transfer of ions
b. A finely graded response
c. An all-or-none response
d. An osmotic process
e. A symbiotic function
AP 2013 Which of the following is true of a neuron in the resting state?
a. The inside of the cell membrane is negative compared to the
outside
b. The outside of the cell membrane is negative compared to the
inside
c. The concentration of sodium ions is equal inside and outside of
the cell membrane
d. Both the sodium and the potassium channels are open
e. The neuron is not polarized
AP 2012 The sequence of shifts in electrical charge of a neuron is called
a. neural integration
b. refraction
c. synaptic transmission
d. the action potential
e. differential conduction
AP 2007 Long-term potentiation is best described as the
a. interference effect of old memories on the formation of new
memories
b. disruptive influence of recent memories on the recall of old
memories
c. tendency of people to recall experiences that are consistent
with their current mood
d. increased efficiency of synaptic transmission between certain
neurons following learning
e. superior ability of older adults to recall events from their
childhood
AP 2004 Which of the following are most involved in the action potential
of a neuron?
a. calcium and sodium
b. sodium and potassium
c. potassium and calcium
d. chloride and calcium
e. chloride and sodium
AP 1999 Which of the following occurs when a neuron is stimulated to its
threshold?
a. The movement of sodium and potassium ions across the
membrane creates an action potential
b. The neuron hyperpolarizes
c. Neurotransmitters are released from the dendrites
d. The absolute refractory period of the neuron prevents it from
responding
e. The neuron’s equilibrium potential is reached
AP 2007 In neurons, neurotransmitters are released at the
a. axons
b. cell bodies
c. dendrites
d. receptor sites
e. synaptic vesicles
AP 2012 Neurotransmitters are typically stored in which of the following
parts of a neuron?
a. The nodes of Ranvier
b. The myelin sheath
c. The terminal buttons
d. The soma
e. The axon
AP 2008 Curare blocks action at acetylcholine synapses and causes
paralysis. This drug is an example of an
a. antagonist
b. agonist
c. inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)
d. excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
e. excitatory neurotransmitter
AP 1994 Dopamine, norepinephrine and acetylcholine are all
a. hormones excreted by the endocrine glands
b. secretions of the exocrine glands
c. drugs used in the therapeutic treatment of memory disorders
d. enzymes involved with the degradation of interneuron signals
e. neurotransmitters that excite or inhibit a neural signal across a
synapse
AP 2008Which of the following neurotransmitters has been linked to
Parkinson’s disease and schizophrenia?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Dopamine
c. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
d. Norepinephrine
e. Serotonin
AP 2013 Research looking to create a drug to reduce the symptoms of
Alzheimer’s disease would most likely focus their efforts on which of the
following neurotransmitters?
a. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
b. Serotonin
c. Norepinephrine
d. Dopamine
e. Acetylcholine
AP 2004 Which of the following neurotransmitters is most directly
associated with Alzheimer’s disease?
a. Dopamine
b. Serotonin
c. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GAGA)
d. Acetylcholine (Ach)
e. Glutamate
AP 1994 Painkilling substances produced by the brain are known as
a. cortisols
b. endorphins
c. glucocorticoids
d. pheromones
e. hormones
AP 2012 Which of the following is the correct sequence of the neural
chain of events set in motion by an environmental stimulus?
a. Receptors, afferent neurons, interneurons, efferent neurons,
effectors
b. Receptors, efferent neurons, interneurons, afferent neurons,
effectors
c. Interneurons, effectors, receptors, afferent neurons, efferent
neurons
d. Effectors, interneurons, receptors, afferent neurons, efferent
neurons
e. Effectors, receptors, afferent neurons, efferent neurons,
interneurons
AP 2013 Which of the following correctly pairs subdivisions within the
major divisions of the human nervous system?
a. Somatic….endocrine and exocrine
b. Central….somatic and sympathetic
c. Autonomic….sympathetic and parasympathetic
d. Sympathetic….parasympathetic and autonomic
e. Peripheral….central nervous system and spinal cord
AP 2012 Which part of the nervous system is most immediately activated
by sudden fear?
a. Parasympathetic
b. Sympathetic
c. Neostriatum
d. Somatic
e. Cortical
AP1994 Activation of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous
system results in
a. an increase in salivation
b. an increase in digestion
c. an increase in respiratory rate
d. a decrease in heart rate
e. a decrease in pupil dilation
AP 2007 Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system most frequently
results in which of the following?
a. Acceleration of heart and breathing rates and dilation of pupils
b. Stimulation of tearing, salivation and peristalsis
c. Calming of the body
d. Contraction of the muscles of the hands and feet
e. Raising the perceptual threshold of olfactory and gustatory
receptors
AP 2013 Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system results in
which of the following?
a. An increase in pupil dilation
b. An increase in respiratory rate
c. A decrease in digestion
d. A decrease in salivation
e. A decrease in heart rate
AP 1999 The role of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic
nervous system is to
a. facilitate the body’s fight-or-flight response
b. prepare the body to cope with stress
c. promote rapid cognitive processing
d. prompt the body to use its resources in responding to
environmental stimuli
e. establish homeostasis after a fight-or-flight response
AP 2013 Juana accidentally touched a hot iron. She immediately drew
back her hand. Which of the following is true about the withdrawal of her
hand?
a. It was initiated in the motor cortex
b. It was initiated in the spinal cord
c. It was a voluntary behavior
d. It was due to instructions from the brain
e. It was an operantly conditioned response
AP 1994 Which of the following allows the examination of living brain
tissue visually without performing surgery?
a. Computerized axial tomography
b. Stereotaxic examination
c. Retrograde degeneration
d. Biofeedback
e. Ablation
AP 2008 In which of the following techniques do researchers inject a
harmless, radioactive substance into the living human brain to examine
activity?
a. Lesioning
b. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
c. Computerized axial tomography (CAT)
d. Positron-emission tomography (PET)
e. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
AP 2012 Which of the following provides information regarding brain
function by monitioring the brain at work through metabolism of glucose?
a. Computed tomography (CT)
b. Electrooculography (EOG)
c. Electroencephalography (EEG)
d. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
e. Positron emission tomography (PET)
AP 2013 Metabolic activity in different areas of the brain can best be
visualized by means of
a. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. computed tomography (CT)
c. positron emission tomography (PET)
d. electroencephalography (EEG)
e. electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB)
AP 2007 Computer-generated color images of the brain that provide
information about glucose metabolism are produced by which of the
following techniques?
a. Electroencephalography (EEG)
b. Electromyography (EMG)
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Positron emission tomography (PET)
e. Computerized axial tomography (CAT)
AP 1999 Which of the following is a brain-imaging technique that
produces the most detailed picture of brain structure?
a. Electroencephalography (EEG)
b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
c. Positron emission tomography (PET)
d. Computerized axial tomography (CAT)
e. Electromyography (EMG)
AP 2008 Which of the following brain regions is indicated by the arrow to
the right?
a. Cerebellum
b. Amygdala
c. Hypothalamus
d. Hippocampus
e. Pons
AP 2008 What is the primary function of the brain region indicated by the
arrow to the right?
a. Memory formation
b. Sleeping, waking and dreaming
c. Problem solving
d. Regulation of body temperature
e. Emotional responses
AP 2012 The area of the brain stem that is important in controlling
breathing is the
a. suprachiasmatic nucleus
b. cerebellum
c. limbic system
d. medulla
e. hippocampus
AP 1994 Which of the following is true of the reticular activating system?
a. It is the major system in the brain for controlling emotions
b. It functions primarily in the control of motor responses
c. It regulates levels of arousal
d. It regulates body temperature
e. It controls the uptake of pituitary hormones
AP 1999 The thalamus processes information for all of the following
senses EXCEPT
a. smell
b. hearing
c. taste
d. vision
e. touch
AP 2008 Damage to which of the following brain structures may cause
the inability to detect the emotional significance of facial expressions,
especially those demonstrating fear?
a. Hippocampus
b. Thalamus
c. Cerebellum
d. Hypothalamus
e. Amygdala
AP 2007 The section of the brain considered most vital to the initiation of
feeding behaviors is the
a. hippocampus
b. hypothalamus
c. superior olive
d. suprachiasmatic nucleus
e. substantianigra
AP 2006 Which of the following structures of the brain has been linked
with the regulation of hunger and thirst?
a. Hippocampus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Thalamus
d. Pons
e. Medulla
AP 1999 A brain tumor that results in obesity would most likely be located
in the
a. left frontal lobe
b. base of the brain stem
c. area of the hypothalamus
d. reticular activating system
e. somatosensory cortex
AP 1994 Hunger and eating are primarily regulated by which of the
following?
a. Androgens
b. Estrogens
c. The hypothalamus
d. The kidneys
e. The medulla oblongata
AP 2006 The human brain differs from the brains of most other animals by
the relative amount of brain mass devoted to which of the following?
a. The occipital lobe
b. The cerebellum
c. The cerebral cortex
d. The homunculus
e. The pituitary gland
AP 1999 Which of the following parts of the brain is most active in
decision making?
a. Reticular formation
b. Corpus callosum
c. Hypothalamus
d. Cerebral cortex
e. Pituitary gland
AP 1999 People who have experienced severe damage to the frontal lobe
of the brain seldom regain their ability to
a. make and carry out plans
b. recognize visual patterns
c. process auditory information
d. process olfactory information
e. integrate their multiple personalities
AP 2004 A person who has a brain injury is having difficulty seeing and
hearing. These symptoms indicate that damage has occurred in the
a. parietal and occipital lobes
b. occipital and temporal lobes
c. frontal and temporal lobes
d. temporal lobe only
e. frontal lobe only
AP 1994 The occipital lobes contain
a. the primary visual cortex
b. the prefrontal cortex
c. the somatosensory cortex
d. the pons
e. sensory and motor connections to other brain regions
AP 2008 Damage to the occipital lobe would most likely affect a person’s
a. balance
b. ability to develop plans
c. vision
d. fine motor movements
e. language processing
AP 2013 The occipital lobe of the human brain contains the centers for
a. hearing
b. vision
c. olfaction
d. tactile sensation
e. taste
AP 1999 Stimulation of portions of the left temporal lobe of the brain
during surgery will cause the patient to
a. see lights
b. lose the sense of smell
c. jerk the left arm
d. extend the tongue
e. hear sounds
AP 1999 Which of the following areas of the body has the largest number
of sensory neurons?
a. Back
b. Foot
c. Ear
d. Lips
e. Wrist
AP 1994 For most people, which of the following is an activity based in
the right hemisphere of the brain?
a. Muscular control of the right hand
b. Simple spatial reasoning
c. Arithmetic reasoning
d. Language comprehension
e. Speech
AP 2012 Brain damage that leaves a person capable of understanding
speech but with an impaired ability to produce speech most likely
indicates injury to which of the following?
a. The basal ganglia
b. Wernicke’s area
c. the substantianigra
d. Broca’s area
e. The inferior colliculi
AP 1999 For most people, speech functions are primarily localized in the
a. right cerebral hemisphere
b. left cerebral hemisphere
c. occipital lobe
d. corpus callosum
e. cerebellum
AP 2008 An individual with damage to Wernicke’s area is most likely to
have difficulty
a. identifying an object held in the hand but not seen
b. planning what to wear to a party
c. remembering the name of a person in a photograph
d. comprehending a spoken request for information
e. distinguishing between red and green
AP 2007 A bundle of nerve fibers that interconnects the two brain
hemispheres is the
a. association areas
b. thalamus
c. corpus callosum
d. Sylvian fissure
e. optic chiasm
AP 2004 Neurosurgeons cut the corpus callosum in the brain disrupting
communication between the right and left hemispheres to
a. prevent the spread of epileptic seizures
b. reduce anxiety attacks and phobic reactions
c. reduce the incidence of violent behaviors
d. treat schizophrenia
e. reduce mood swings
AP 2008 An image projected to the left visual field of a split-brained
person will be processed in the
a. left visual cortex
b. right visual cortex
c. right side of the left retina
d. left side of the right retina
e. sensory cortex
AP 2012 Which of the following systems produces, circulates, and
regulates levels of hormones in the body?
a. Circulatory system
b. Endocrine System
c. Limbic System
d. Sympathetic nervous system
e. Parasympathetic nervous system
AP 2013 Most glands in the human body are part of which system?
a. Circulatory
b. Skeletal
c. Respiratory
d. Renal
e. Endocrine
AP 2007 Which of the following is a hormone that is most directly related
to human sex drive?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Testosterone
c. Angiotensin
d. Dopamine
e. Norepinephrine
AP 2007 Which gland of the endocrine system controls the activity of the
other glands?
a. Pancreas
b. Thyroid
c. Adrenal
d. Pituitary
e. Pineal
AP 2008 The evolutionary perspective (sociobiology) argues that
a. humans are motivated by a desire to maintain optimum
hormonal levels
b. humans are genetically programmed to ensure that there is a
new generation of the species
c. humans strive to minimize inconsistent thoughts and actions
d. there is a relationship among task difficulty, physical arousal
and task performance
e. conditioning explains most human behavior
AP 2013 Which of the following describes the different emotional
dispositions of infants?
a. Imprinting
b. Temperament
c. Mental set
d. Instinct
e. Attachment
AP 1999 Assume that R represents a dominate gene in rats for normal
running and r represents a recessive gene in rats for an abnormal gait
called waltzing. Mating a female Rr rat with a male RR rat will produce
offspring that are
a. 50% runners and 50% waltzers
b. 25% runners and 75% waltzers
c. 75% runners and 25% waltzers
d. 100% waltzers
e. 100% runners
AP 2013 Joseph has blue eyes and brown hair and is tall. These
characteristics are best described as
a. recessive genes
b. dominate genes
c. mutations
d. genotypic traits
e. phenotypic traits
AP 1999 Which of the following regularities in behavior can most likely be
accounted for by the existence of a group norm?
a. Students tend to use less profanity with adults than they
do with their peers
b. Most people sleep at least six hours a night
c. The average annual income of industrial workers in 1972 was
$7,250
d. Male infants have a higher infant mortality rate than female
infants
e. People perform well-learned behaviors better in the presence
of others than when alone
AP 2012 Vance is a popular honors student who, unlike his reference
group, writes his best papers sitting on his motorcycle in the basement of
his college dormitory. His behavior can be considered abnormal only if
abnormality is defined as
a. the need to rebel against authority
b. disinterest in the opinion of others
c. the perception of one’s self as different
d. deviation from cultural norms
e. the inability to work in a group
AP 2013 A child’s sex is genetically determined by the
a. mother
b. father
c. paternal grandmother
d. maternal grandfather
e. maternal grandmother
AP 2013 Primary sex characteristics include which of the following?
a. Deepened voice in males
b. Breast development in females
c. Presence of ovaries
d. Body hair
e. Menopause
AP 1999 Sabrina plays on a rugby team and collects antique dolls. Peter
is on the football team and loves to cook. Both Sabrina and Peter
demonstrate a high degree of
a. sex-role stereotyping
b. sex-role confusion
c. gender constancy
d. androgyny
e. sex-role identity
AP 2013 Which of the following statements is supported by research on
homosexuality?
a. There is a correlation between sexual orientation and early
childhood problems
b. There is a correlation between the sexual orientation of a child
and the sexual orientation of his or her adoptive parents
c. There is a correlation between sexual orientation and the size
of the cerebellum
d. It is possible that high levels of dopamine influence sexual
orientation
e. Studies of twins have shown a genetic predisposition to
homosexuality
AP 2007 Gender typing is described as
a. the realization that gender is stable, regardless of superficial
behaviors such as dress
b. a preferential interest of a female child in the attention of the
mother
c. a child showing ambivalence toward both the mother and the
father
d. adolescents integrating social, sexual, intellectual and ethical
aspects into a self-identity
e. the acquisition of the roles associated with distinctions between
male and female
AP 2013 (#1)
Psychologists agree that both biology and environment influence personality, mental
processing and behaviors.
A. Different biological mechanisms are associated with each of the following.
Explain one biological mechanism for each. Definitions alone will not
score.
• Aggression
• Color Blindness
• Hunger
B. Different environmental factors are associated with each of the following.
Explain one environmental factor for each. Definitions alone will not
score.
• Anorexia nervosa
• Context-dependent memory
• Gender role
AP 2012 (#2)
Lauren loves her parents very much but is so committed to playing the violin that
she transferred from her original college to a musical school against their wishes.
Lauren practices and studies violin with a group of talented students. She
aspires to a life as a concert musician.
A. Explain how the concept of approach-approach conflict may have contributed
to Lauren’s decision to change schools.
B. Explain how self-actualization may contribute to Lauren’s desire to play the
violin
C. Using the following psychological terms, describe why Lauren plays the violin.
- Intrinsic motivation
- Social Learning Theory
D. Explain how each of the following can affect Lauren as she plays the violin.
- Acetylcholine
- Difference threshold
- Social Facilitation
AP 2011 (#2)
Savannah is a junior in high school and is preparing for an exam in her beginning Japanese course.
The exam will consist of both written and spoken portions. Although it is her first course in Japanese,
Savannah is confident that she will do very well on the exam.
A. Describe how each of the following relates to Savannah’s successful learning and performance.
- Broca’s area
- Use of phonemes
- Modeling
- Chunking
B. Describe how each of the following may hinder Savannah as she prepares for and takes the exam
- Encoding failure
- Age and language acquisition
C. After the exam, Savannah tells her family and friends that she believes she spoke fluently and did
extremely well on the exam. Describe how each of the following concepts may have influenced
her opinion.
- Self-efficacy
- Confirmation bias
AP 2010 (#1)
For each of the pairs below, use an example to show how the first term in
each pair affects or is related to the second. Definitions alone without
examples will not score.
• Serial-position effect…recall
• Functional fixedness…problem solving
• Operational definition…replication
• Double-blind research…bias
• Operant conditioning…superstition
• Reinforcement…overjustification effect
• Myelin sheath…neural impulse
AP 2010 (#2)
At a school-wide pep rally preceding a big game at William James High School,
each grade has a designated t-shirt color and seating area in the bleachers.
Student leaders organize classes so that their colored shirts combine to form the
school flag. The coach gives an exciting speech, the cheerleaders perform a
routine, and the band plays the school song while the students sing in unison
Explain the behavior and perceptions of the participants in the pep rally using the
concepts below. Be sure to apply the concepts to the scenario in your
explanation.
• Cocktail party effect
• Conformity
• Deindividuation
• Figure ground
• Occipital lobe
• Procedural memory
• Sympathetic nervous system
AP 2009 (#1)
Dimitri and Linda are trying to learn a new routine to compete successfully
in a dance competition. Give an example of how each of the following
could affect their performances. Definitions without application do not
score.
• Extrinsic motivation
• Punishment
• Proactive interference
• Endorphins
• Vestibular system
• Divergent thinking
• Introversion
AP 2009 (#2)
James is in a driver’s education course preparing to take his driving test.
The course includes both book work and driving on the road to prepare
students for a written test and a road test.
A. Describe how each of the following might influence his ability to drive a
car during the road test.
- Cognitive Map
- Cerebellum
- Observational Learning
- Human factors
B. Describe how each of the following are related to the results of the
written test
- Reticular formation
- Predictive validity
- Semantic memory
AP 2006 (#2)
Zoey wants to buy a new car but is having difficulty deciding what kind to buy. She is
feeling anxious and wants to make a decision soon. Zoey visits several local car dealers
and asks for the advice of some of her friends. Explain how each of the following could
influence her decision. Be sure to discuss each concept in the context of Zoey’s
decision.
• Approach-avoidance
• Central route to persuasion
• Heuristics
• Individualism
• Rationalization
• Self-efficacy
• The autonomic nervous system
• The foot-in-the-door phenomenon